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Which method utilizes both liquid chromatography and a quadrupole ion trap mass spectrometer to measure protein concentrations?
LC-MS/MS
4
Methods & resources
22102423
Analysis of Staphylococcus enterotoxin B using differential isotopic tags and liquid chromatography quadrupole ion trap mass spectrometry.
[ "LC-MS/MS", "liquid chromatography-tandem mass spectrometry", "liquid chromatography-mass spectrometry/mass spectrometry", "liquid chromatography with tandem mass spectrometry", "liquid chromatography–tandem mass spectrometry", "LC-MS-MS", "LC/MS/MS", "LC-MS/MS assay", "LC-MS/MS analysis", "LC-MS/...
What analytical technique combines liquid chromatography with quadrupole ion trap mass spectrometry for protein quantification?
true
Which staphylococcal toxin is most frequently linked to sudden-onset gastrointestinal illness following ingestion of tainted food?
Staphylococcal enterotoxin B
5
Disease causation & pathogens
22102423
Analysis of Staphylococcus enterotoxin B using differential isotopic tags and liquid chromatography quadrupole ion trap mass spectrometry.
[ "Staphylococcal enterotoxin B", "SEB", "staphylococcal enterotoxin type B", "staphylococcal enterotoxin beta", "enterotoxin B", "staphylococcal enterotoxin Bs", "SEBs", "enterotoxin Bs" ]
What specific staphylococcal enterotoxin is commonly associated with acute gastroenteritis after consumption of contaminated food?
true
Which diagnostic imaging technique is frequently utilized to evaluate the degree of mitral regurgitation in research studies or clinical practice?
Echocardiography
6
Biomarkers & diagnostics
19224369
A dynamic heart system to facilitate the development of mitral valve repair techniques.
[ "Echocardiography", "Echo", "Echocardiogram", "Echocardiograms", "Cardiac ultrasound", "Ultrasound cardiography", "Cardiac echography", "Echocardiographies" ]
What imaging modality is commonly used to assess mitral regurgitation severity in experimental or clinical settings?
true
Which animal model is frequently used for experimental studies of mitral valve repair techniques?
Porcine heart
4
Methods & resources
19224369
A dynamic heart system to facilitate the development of mitral valve repair techniques.
[ "Porcine heart", "pig heart", "swine heart", "porcine hearts", "pig hearts", "swine hearts" ]
Which animal model is frequently used for experimental studies of mitral valve repair techniques?
false
What is the primary hemodynamic consequence of mitral valve insufficiency on cardiac output?
Decreased cardiac output
5
Disease causation & pathogens
19224369
A dynamic heart system to facilitate the development of mitral valve repair techniques.
[ "Decreased cardiac output", "reduced cardiac output", "low cardiac output", "diminished cardiac output", "decrease in cardiac output", "reduction in cardiac output", "cardiac output reduction", "cardiac output decrease", "decreased cardiac outputs", "reduced cardiac outputs", "low cardiac output...
What is the primary hemodynamic consequence of mitral valve insufficiency on cardiac output?
false
What is the full chemical name of the cyclic base abbreviated as DD18C6 that forms charge-transfer complexes with pi-acceptors?
N,N'-dibenzyl-1,4,10,13-tetraoxa-7,16-diazacyclooctadecane
0
Other
16043067
Spectroscopic studies on [(DD18C6H2)(HPA)2](PA)2 and [(DD18C6H2)(DDQ)2](DDQH)2 formed in the reaction of N,N'-dibenzyl-1,4,10,13-tetraoxa-7,16-diazacyclooctadecane with HPA and DDQ.
[ "N,N'-dibenzyl-1,4,10,13-tetraoxa-7,16-diazacyclooctadecane", "DD18C6", "dibenzyldiaza-18-crown-6", "N,N'-dibenzyl-diaza-18-crown-6", "N,N'-dibenzyl-7,16-diazadioxa-18-crown-6", "dibenzyldiaza-18-crown-6 ether", "N,N'-dibenzyl-1,4,10,13-tetraoxa-7,16-diazacyclooctadecanes", "dibenzyldiaza-18-crown-6 e...
What is the full chemical name of the cyclic base abbreviated as DD18C6 that forms charge-transfer complexes with pi-acceptors?
false
Which pi-acceptor, abbreviated as DDQ, is commonly used in spectrophotometric studies of charge-transfer complexes with cyclic amines?
2,3-dichloro-5,6-dicyano-1,4-benzoquinone
0
Other
16043067
Spectroscopic studies on [(DD18C6H2)(HPA)2](PA)2 and [(DD18C6H2)(DDQ)2](DDQH)2 formed in the reaction of N,N'-dibenzyl-1,4,10,13-tetraoxa-7,16-diazacyclooctadecane with HPA and DDQ.
[ "2,3-dichloro-5,6-dicyano-1,4-benzoquinone", "DDQ", "2,3-dichloro-5,6-dicyanobenzoquinone", "2,3-dichloro-5,6-dicyano-p-benzoquinone", "2,3-dichloro-5,6-dicyanoquinone", "2,3-dichloro-5,6-dicyano-para-benzoquinone", "2,3-dichloro-5,6-dicyano-1,4-benzoquinones", "DDQs" ]
Which pi-acceptor, abbreviated as DDQ, is commonly used in spectrophotometric studies of charge-transfer complexes with cyclic amines?
false
Which method is commonly used to measure the electronic absorption spectra of charge-transfer compounds dissolved in a solvent?
Spectrophotometry
4
Methods & resources
16043067
Spectroscopic studies on [(DD18C6H2)(HPA)2](PA)2 and [(DD18C6H2)(DDQ)2](DDQH)2 formed in the reaction of N,N'-dibenzyl-1,4,10,13-tetraoxa-7,16-diazacyclooctadecane with HPA and DDQ.
[ "Spectrophotometry", "spectrophotometric analysis", "spectrophotometric method", "spectrophotometric assay", "spectrophotometries" ]
What analytical technique is employed to record the electronic spectra of charge-transfer complexes in solution?
true
In individuals with spinal cord injuries, implantable stimulators are sometimes used to regulate bladder and sphincter activity. Which specific nerve do these devices stimulate to achieve this effect?
S2 nerve
9
Anatomy & cellular localisation
10198535
Implantable stimulation system dedicated for neural selective stimulation.
[ "S2 nerve", "second sacral nerve", "sacral nerve 2", "sacral 2 nerve", "sacral nerve root 2", "S2 spinal nerve", "S2 nerve root", "second sacral spinal nerve", "S2 nerves", "second sacral nerves", "sacral nerve 2s", "sacral 2 nerves", "sacral nerve root 2s", "S2 spinal nerves", "S2 nerve...
Which nerve is targeted by implantable stimulation systems to control bladder and sphincter muscle function in spinal cord injury patients?
true
What type of signal frequency is used to inhibit contraction of the sphincter muscle during neural stimulation for bladder control?
High-frequency signal
2
Therapeutics & clinical evidence
10198535
Implantable stimulation system dedicated for neural selective stimulation.
[ "High-frequency signal", "high frequency signal", "high-frequency stimulation", "high frequency stimulation", "high-frequency electrical stimulation", "high frequency electrical stimulation", "high-frequency signals", "high frequency signals", "high-frequency stimulations", "high frequency stimula...
What type of signal frequency is used to inhibit contraction of the sphincter muscle during neural stimulation for bladder control?
false
Which muscle is activated by low-rate electrical stimulation in order to trigger urination when using functional electrical stimulation devices?
Detrusor muscle
9
Anatomy & cellular localisation
10198535
Implantable stimulation system dedicated for neural selective stimulation.
[ "Detrusor muscle", "detrusor", "detrusor urinae muscle", "musculus detrusor vesicae", "detrusor of urinary bladder", "detrusor muscle of bladder", "detrusor muscle of the bladder", "detrusor muscles" ]
What muscle is stimulated by low-frequency pulses to induce bladder voiding in functional electrical stimulation systems?
true
What tyrosine kinase inhibitor is commonly used to treat chronic myeloid leukemia patients who are resistant or intolerant to imatinib?
Nilotinib
2
Therapeutics & clinical evidence
19608673
Pancreatic enzyme elevation in chronic myeloid leukemia patients treated with nilotinib after imatinib failure.
[ "Nilotinib", "AMN107", "Tasigna", "nilotinibs" ]
What tyrosine kinase inhibitor is commonly used to treat chronic myeloid leukemia patients who are resistant or intolerant to imatinib?
false
Which two pancreatic enzymes are most frequently elevated in patients with chronic myeloid leukemia undergoing nilotinib therapy?
Amylase and lipase
6
Biomarkers & diagnostics
19608673
Pancreatic enzyme elevation in chronic myeloid leukemia patients treated with nilotinib after imatinib failure.
[ "amylase", "amylases", "alpha-amylase", "alpha amylase", "1,4-alpha-D-glucan glucanohydrolase", "diastase", "ptyalin", "salivary amylase", "pancreatic amylase", "lipase", "lipases", "pancreatic lipase", "triacylglycerol lipase", "glycerol ester hydrolase", "steapsin" ]
Which two pancreatic enzymes are most frequently elevated in patients with chronic myeloid leukemia undergoing nilotinib therapy?
false
Which blood cancer is identified by the Philadelphia chromosome and is commonly managed with tyrosine kinase inhibitor therapy?
Chronic myeloid leukemia
5
Disease causation & pathogens
19608673
Pancreatic enzyme elevation in chronic myeloid leukemia patients treated with nilotinib after imatinib failure.
[ "Chronic myeloid leukemia", "CML", "chronic myelogenous leukemia", "chronic granulocytic leukemia", "chronic myelocytic leukemia", "chronic myeloid leukaemia", "chronic myelogenous leukaemia", "chronic granulocytic leukaemia", "chronic myelocytic leukaemia", "chronic myeloid leukemias", "CMLs", ...
What is the hematologic malignancy characterized by the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome and often treated with tyrosine kinase inhibitors?
true
What secreted glycoprotein is implicated in the pathogenesis of several neuropsychiatric disorders such as schizophrenia and autism spectrum disorder?
Reelin
5
Disease causation & pathogens
27346785
Mice that lack the C-terminal region of Reelin exhibit behavioral abnormalities related to neuropsychiatric disorders.
[ "Reelin", "RELN", "protein reelin", "reelin protein", "reelins" ]
What secreted glycoprotein is implicated in the pathogenesis of several neuropsychiatric disorders such as schizophrenia and autism spectrum disorder?
false
Which specific region of the Reelin protein is necessary for efficient activation of its downstream signaling pathways in the brain?
C-terminal region
3
Protein function & signalling
27346785
Mice that lack the C-terminal region of Reelin exhibit behavioral abnormalities related to neuropsychiatric disorders.
[ "C-terminal region", "C terminus", "C-terminal domain", "carboxy-terminal region", "carboxyl-terminal region", "carboxy terminus", "carboxyl terminus", "C-terminal regions", "C termini", "C-terminal domains", "carboxy-terminal regions", "carboxyl-terminal regions" ]
Which specific region of the Reelin protein is necessary for efficient activation of its downstream signaling pathways in the brain?
false
Which experimental paradigm is frequently employed to evaluate impairments in working memory in mice utilized for studying neuropsychiatric conditions?
T-maze test
4
Methods & resources
27346785
Mice that lack the C-terminal region of Reelin exhibit behavioral abnormalities related to neuropsychiatric disorders.
[ "T-maze test", "T maze test", "T-maze", "T maze", "T-maze task", "T maze task", "T-maze alternation test", "T maze alternation test", "T-maze spontaneous alternation test", "T maze spontaneous alternation test", "T-maze alternation task", "T maze alternation task", "T-maze spontaneous altern...
What behavioral test is commonly used to assess working memory deficits in mouse models of neuropsychiatric disorders?
true
What method of inducing molt in laying hens involves complete removal of feed to achieve targeted body weight loss?
Feed removal
4
Methods & resources
7816724
Evaluation of molt induction to body weight loss of fifteen, twenty, or twenty-five percent by feed removal, daily limited, or alternate-day feeding of a molt feed.
[ "Feed removal", "feed withdrawal", "total feed withdrawal", "complete feed withdrawal", "feed deprivation", "fasting", "forced fasting", "feed removal method", "feed withdrawal method", "feed deprivation method" ]
What method of inducing molt in laying hens involves complete removal of feed to achieve targeted body weight loss?
false
Which hematological parameter is used to assess physiological changes in hens during molt induction by different feeding methods?
Packed cell volume
6
Biomarkers & diagnostics
7816724
Evaluation of molt induction to body weight loss of fifteen, twenty, or twenty-five percent by feed removal, daily limited, or alternate-day feeding of a molt feed.
[ "packed cell volume", "PCV", "hematocrit", "haematocrit", "hematocrit value", "haematocrit value", "packed cell volumes", "PCVs", "hematocrits", "haematocrits", "hematocrit values", "haematocrit values" ]
Which hematological parameter is used to assess physiological changes in hens during molt induction by different feeding methods?
false
What is the dietary calcium concentration, expressed as a percentage, in the prelay feed provided to hens during the molt period?
1.2%
2
Therapeutics & clinical evidence
7816724
Evaluation of molt induction to body weight loss of fifteen, twenty, or twenty-five percent by feed removal, daily limited, or alternate-day feeding of a molt feed.
[ "1.2%", "1.2 percent", "1.2 percent calcium", "1.2% calcium" ]
What is the dietary calcium concentration, expressed as a percentage, in the prelay feed provided to hens during the molt period?
false
What is the title of the formal, objective road assessment utilized to measure driving competence in people diagnosed with Alzheimer's-related dementia?
Washington University Road Test
4
Methods & resources
9193205
Reliability of the Washington University Road Test. A performance-based assessment for drivers with dementia of the Alzheimer type.
[ "Washington University Road Test", "WURT", "Washington University Road Test of Driving Performance", "Washington University Road Tests" ]
What is the name of the standardized performance-based assessment used to evaluate driving ability in individuals with dementia of the Alzheimer type?
true
Based on evidence from practical evaluations, which neurodegenerative disorder is linked to reduced driving ability, even when symptoms are only mild?
Alzheimer disease
5
Disease causation & pathogens
9193205
Reliability of the Washington University Road Test. A performance-based assessment for drivers with dementia of the Alzheimer type.
[ "Alzheimer disease", "Alzheimer's disease", "Alzheimers disease", "AD", "Alzheimer dementia", "Alzheimer's dementia", "Alzheimers dementia", "Alzheimer diseases", "Alzheimer's diseases", "Alzheimers diseases" ]
Which neurodegenerative disease is associated with impaired driving performance, even in its mild stages, according to performance-based assessments?
true
What statistical measure was used to assess interrater reliability in the evaluation of driving performance on the Washington University Road Test?
Kappa statistic
4
Methods & resources
9193205
Reliability of the Washington University Road Test. A performance-based assessment for drivers with dementia of the Alzheimer type.
[ "Kappa statistic", "Cohen's kappa", "kappa coefficient", "kappa", "Cohen kappa", "Cohen’s kappa coefficient", "Cohen’s kappa statistic", "Cohen's kappa statistic", "kappa statistics", "kappa coefficients" ]
What statistical measure was used to assess interrater reliability in the evaluation of driving performance on the Washington University Road Test?
false
To which group of environmental toxins do substances such as Aroclor 1242 and Aroclor 1254 belong?
Polychlorinated biphenyls
5
Disease causation & pathogens
8350383
Percutaneous absorption of PCBs from soil: in vivo rhesus monkey, in vitro human skin, and binding to powdered human stratum corneum.
[ "Polychlorinated biphenyls", "PCBs", "polychlorobiphenyls", "polychlorinated biphenyl", "PCB", "polychlorinated biphenyl compounds", "polychlorinated biphenyl congeners", "polychlorinated biphenyl mixtures", "polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs)", "polychlorinated biphenyl compounds", "polychlorinat...
What class of environmental pollutants includes Aroclor 1242 and Aroclor 1254?
true
What animal model was used in vivo to study percutaneous absorption of polychlorinated biphenyls from soil?
Rhesus monkey
4
Methods & resources
8350383
Percutaneous absorption of PCBs from soil: in vivo rhesus monkey, in vitro human skin, and binding to powdered human stratum corneum.
[ "Rhesus monkey", "rhesus macaque", "Macaca mulatta", "rhesus monkeys", "rhesus macaques", "Macaca mulattas" ]
What animal model was used in vivo to study percutaneous absorption of polychlorinated biphenyls from soil?
false
What human skin layer was used in powdered form to assess binding of polychlorinated biphenyls in vitro?
Stratum corneum
9
Anatomy & cellular localisation
8350383
Percutaneous absorption of PCBs from soil: in vivo rhesus monkey, in vitro human skin, and binding to powdered human stratum corneum.
[ "stratum corneum", "horny layer", "stratum corneums", "horny layers" ]
What human skin layer was used in powdered form to assess binding of polychlorinated biphenyls in vitro?
false
Which autoimmune disease typically presents with both inflammation of the optic nerve and sudden onset of transverse myelitis?
Neuromyelitis optica
5
Disease causation & pathogens
17878828
[Devic's neuro-optic myelitis and pregnancy].
[ "Neuromyelitis optica", "NMO", "Devic disease", "Devic's disease", "Devic syndrome", "Devic's syndrome", "neuromyelitis opticas", "NMOs" ]
What autoimmune disorder is characterized by the combination of optic neuritis and acute transverse myelitis?
true
Which corticosteroid is typically given as a rapid infusion to manage acute exacerbations of neuromyelitis optica?
Methylprednisolone
2
Therapeutics & clinical evidence
17878828
[Devic's neuro-optic myelitis and pregnancy].
[ "Methylprednisolone", "MP", "methylprednisolone sodium succinate", "Solu-Medrol", "Depo-Medrol", "Medrol", "methyl prednisolone", "methylprednisolones", "MPs" ]
Which corticosteroid is commonly administered as a bolus treatment in acute attacks of neuromyelitis optica?
true
Which diagnostic imaging technique is employed to verify the presence of spinal cord abnormalities in individuals with a clinical suspicion of neuromyelitis optica?
Magnetic resonance imaging
4
Methods & resources
17878828
[Devic's neuro-optic myelitis and pregnancy].
[ "Magnetic resonance imaging", "MRI", "magnetic resonance imagings", "MRIs", "nuclear magnetic resonance imaging", "NMRI", "nuclear magnetic resonance imagings", "NMRIs", "magnetic resonance tomography", "MRT", "magnetic resonance tomographies", "MRTs" ]
What imaging modality is used to confirm spinal cord lesions in patients suspected of having neuromyelitis optica?
true
Which specific congenital uterine malformation, defined by a single uterus divided internally by a septum into two separate chambers, was absent among the subjects included in this infertility research group?
Septate uterus
5
Disease causation & pathogens
7418888
Arcuate and bicornuate uterine anomalies and infertility.
[ "Septate uterus", "uterine septum", "septate uteri", "uterine septa", "uterine septate anomaly", "uterine septate anomalies", "uterine septum anomaly", "uterine septum anomalies", "uterine septate malformation", "uterine septate malformations", "uterine septum malformation", "uterine septum ma...
What congenital uterine anomaly is characterized by a uterus with two distinct cavities separated by a septum, but was not found among patients in this infertility study cohort?
true
Which operation is frequently undertaken to repair a bicornuate uterus in women experiencing difficulty conceiving?
Metroplasty
2
Therapeutics & clinical evidence
7418888
Arcuate and bicornuate uterine anomalies and infertility.
[ "Metroplasty", "Strassman metroplasty", "Strassman procedure", "uterine metroplasty", "hysteroscopic metroplasty", "metroplasties" ]
What surgical procedure is commonly performed to correct a bicornuate uterus in women with infertility?
true
What is the name of the congenital uterine condition characterized by the presence of two entirely distinct uterine chambers, commonly referred to as uterus didelphys?
Uterus didelphys
5
Disease causation & pathogens
7418888
Arcuate and bicornuate uterine anomalies and infertility.
[ "uterus didelphys", "double uterus", "didelphys uterus", "uterine didelphys", "uterus didelphyses", "double uteri", "didelphys uteri", "uterine didelphyses" ]
Which uterine anomaly is associated with a uterus that has two completely separate cavities and is termed uterus didelphys?
true
Which staging system is commonly used to classify the extent of vulvar carcinoma?
International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) staging
8
Clinical scales & classifications
7336891
Carcinoma of the vulva in Jamaican women.
[ "International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) staging", "FIGO staging", "FIGO classification", "FIGO staging system", "International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics staging", "International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics classification", "FIGO system", "FIGO stage", ...
Which staging system is commonly used to classify the extent of vulvar carcinoma?
false
What long-standing granulomatous disorder of the vulva is linked to a higher likelihood of progressing to vulvar cancer?
Chronic vulvar granulomatous disease
5
Disease causation & pathogens
7336891
Carcinoma of the vulva in Jamaican women.
[ "Chronic vulvar granulomatous disease", "vulvar granulomatous disease", "chronic granulomatous disease of the vulva", "vulvar granulomatous diseases", "chronic vulvar granulomatous diseases" ]
Which chronic vulvar condition is associated with an increased risk of developing vulvar carcinoma?
true
In which age group is vulvar carcinoma more frequently observed in Jamaican women compared to Western metropolitan countries?
Women under the age of 50
5
Disease causation & pathogens
7336891
Carcinoma of the vulva in Jamaican women.
[ "Women under the age of 50", "women younger than 50", "women less than 50 years old", "women under 50", "women below 50 years", "women aged under 50", "women younger than fifty", "women under fifty", "women aged less than 50", "women under 50 years of age", "women under fifty years of age" ]
In which age group is vulvar carcinoma more frequently observed in Jamaican women compared to Western metropolitan countries?
false
What combination chemotherapy regimen includes methotrexate, vincristine, cisplatin, cyclophosphamide, adriamycin, and bleomycin for the treatment of invasive urothelial cancer?
MVP-CAB
2
Therapeutics & clinical evidence
7693990
Adjuvant chemotherapy for invasive urothelial cancer: experience with a methotrexate, vincristine, cisplatin, cyclophosphamide, adriamycin and bleomycin (MVP-CAB) regimen: a preliminary report.
[ "MVP-CAB", "MVP CAB", "MVP/CAB", "MVP-CAB regimen", "MVP CAB regimen", "MVP/CAB regimen", "methotrexate, vincristine, cisplatin, cyclophosphamide, adriamycin, and bleomycin regimen", "methotrexate vincristine cisplatin cyclophosphamide adriamycin bleomycin regimen", "methotrexate-vincristine-cisplat...
What combination chemotherapy regimen includes methotrexate, vincristine, cisplatin, cyclophosphamide, adriamycin, and bleomycin for the treatment of invasive urothelial cancer?
false
What cytokine is commonly prescribed to aid individuals undergoing aggressive chemotherapy for invasive urothelial carcinoma?
Granulocyte colony stimulating factor
2
Therapeutics & clinical evidence
7693990
Adjuvant chemotherapy for invasive urothelial cancer: experience with a methotrexate, vincristine, cisplatin, cyclophosphamide, adriamycin and bleomycin (MVP-CAB) regimen: a preliminary report.
[ "granulocyte colony stimulating factor", "G-CSF", "granulocyte-colony stimulating factor", "granulocyte colony-stimulating factor", "granulocyte colony-stimulating factors", "granulocyte colony stimulating factors", "GCSF", "filgrastim", "lenograstim", "neutrophil colony-stimulating factor", "ne...
Which growth factor is administered to support patients receiving intensive chemotherapy for invasive urothelial cancer?
true
What antiemetic drug is mentioned as useful for patients undergoing intensive chemotherapy for urothelial cancer?
Granisetron
2
Therapeutics & clinical evidence
7693990
Adjuvant chemotherapy for invasive urothelial cancer: experience with a methotrexate, vincristine, cisplatin, cyclophosphamide, adriamycin and bleomycin (MVP-CAB) regimen: a preliminary report.
[ "Granisetron", "Kytril", "GRN", "BRN-1118", "BRL 43694", "BRL43694", "granisetron hydrochloride", "granisetron HCl", "granisetrons" ]
What antiemetic drug is mentioned as useful for patients undergoing intensive chemotherapy for urothelial cancer?
false
What neuroimaging method is commonly used to measure prefrontal oxygenation during cognitive tasks in adults with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder?
Functional near-infrared spectroscopy
4
Methods & resources
22323120
Working memory and response inhibition as one integral phenotype of adult ADHD? A behavioral and imaging correlational investigation.
[ "functional near-infrared spectroscopy", "fNIRS", "near-infrared spectroscopy", "near infrared spectroscopy", "NIRS", "functional NIRS", "functional near infrared spectroscopy", "functional near-infrared spectroscopies", "fNIRSs", "near-infrared spectroscopies", "NIRSs" ]
What neuroimaging method is commonly used to measure prefrontal oxygenation during cognitive tasks in adults with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder?
false
Which cognitive task is frequently used to assess working memory performance in clinical and research settings?
N-back task
4
Methods & resources
22323120
Working memory and response inhibition as one integral phenotype of adult ADHD? A behavioral and imaging correlational investigation.
[ "N-back task", "n-back task", "N back task", "n back task", "N-back", "n-back", "N back", "n back", "N-back paradigm", "n-back paradigm", "N-back test", "n-back test", "N-back tasks", "n-back tasks", "N back tasks", "n back tasks", "N-back paradigms", "n-back paradigms", "N-back ...
Which cognitive task is frequently used to assess working memory performance in clinical and research settings?
false
Which neurodevelopmental condition in adults is marked by impairments in both working memory and the ability to suppress inappropriate responses?
Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
5
Disease causation & pathogens
22323120
Working memory and response inhibition as one integral phenotype of adult ADHD? A behavioral and imaging correlational investigation.
[ "Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder", "ADHD", "attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder", "attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder", "attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder", "hyperkinetic disorder", "attention deficit disorder with hyperactivity", "attention deficit hyperactivity disorders",...
What neurodevelopmental disorder is characterized by deficits in working memory and response inhibition in adults?
true
Which non-cancerous bone tumor, originating from the periodontal ligament, is made up of cementum, bony material, and fibrous connective tissue?
Cementifying fibroma
5
Disease causation & pathogens
23853018
Cementifying fibroma.
[ "Cementifying fibroma", "cemento-ossifying fibroma", "ossifying fibroma", "cementoosseous fibroma", "cemento ossifying fibroma", "cementifying fibromas", "cemento-ossifying fibromas", "ossifying fibromas", "cementoosseous fibromas", "cemento ossifying fibromas" ]
What benign osseous tumour arises from the periodontal ligament and is composed of cementum, bone, and fibrous tissue?
true
Which fibro-osseous pathology of the mouth shares a strong association with cementifying fibroma?
Fibrous dysplasia
5
Disease causation & pathogens
23853018
Cementifying fibroma.
[ "Fibrous dysplasia", "fibrous dysplasias", "fibro-osseous dysplasia", "fibroosseous dysplasia", "fibro-osseous dysplasias", "fibroosseous dysplasias", "FD", "Jaffe-Lichtenstein disease", "Jaffe-Lichtenstein syndrome", "Jaffe-Lichtenstein diseases", "Jaffe-Lichtenstein syndromes" ]
Which oral lesion is closely related to cementifying fibroma and is classified as a fibro-osseous lesion?
true
What is the usual tissue of origin for a cementifying fibroma?
Periodontal ligament
9
Anatomy & cellular localisation
23853018
Cementifying fibroma.
[ "periodontal ligament", "periodontal ligaments", "desmodontium", "desmodontia", "periodontium", "periodontia", "alveolodental ligament", "alveolodental ligaments", "periodontal membrane", "periodontal membranes" ]
From which anatomical structure does cementifying fibroma most commonly originate?
true
What type of intervention is Family Eats designed as for promoting healthy home food environments?
Web-based intervention
4
Methods & resources
27198535
Outcome Evaluation of Family Eats.
[ "Web-based intervention", "web based intervention", "web intervention", "internet-based intervention", "internet based intervention", "online intervention", "digital intervention", "eHealth intervention", "electronic health intervention", "web-based interventions", "web interventions", "intern...
What type of intervention is Family Eats designed as for promoting healthy home food environments?
false
Which age group of children participated in the Family Eats randomized clinical trial?
8- to 12-year-old children
8
Clinical scales & classifications
27198535
Outcome Evaluation of Family Eats.
[ "8- to 12-year-old children", "8 to 12 year old children", "8–12-year-old children", "8–12 year old children", "8-12-year-old children", "8-12 year old children", "children aged 8 to 12 years", "children aged 8–12 years", "children ages 8 to 12", "children ages 8–12", "8- to 12-year-olds", "8 ...
Which age group of children participated in the Family Eats randomized clinical trial?
false
Which beverage's consumption frequency was significantly higher in the control group parents compared to intervention group parents immediately after the intervention?
100% fruit juice
6
Biomarkers & diagnostics
27198535
Outcome Evaluation of Family Eats.
[ "100% fruit juice", "100 percent fruit juice", "pure fruit juice", "fruit juice", "fruit juices", "100% fruit juices", "100 percent fruit juices", "pure fruit juices" ]
Which beverage's consumption frequency was significantly higher in the control group parents compared to intervention group parents immediately after the intervention?
false
Which class of skeletal muscle fibers exhibits the highest responsiveness to insulin?
Type I fiber
3
Protein function & signalling
27053651
Intrauterine growth-restricted sheep fetuses exhibit smaller hindlimb muscle fibers and lower proportions of insulin-sensitive Type I fibers near term.
[ "Type I fiber", "Type I fibers", "type 1 fiber", "type 1 fibers", "slow-twitch fiber", "slow-twitch fibers", "slow twitch fiber", "slow twitch fibers", "slow oxidative fiber", "slow oxidative fibers", "red fiber", "red fibers", "slow fiber", "slow fibers", "type I muscle fiber", "type ...
What type of skeletal muscle fiber is most sensitive to insulin stimulation?
true
Which specific myosin isoform serves as an identifying protein for Type I skeletal muscle fibers?
Myosin heavy chain-I (MyHC-I)
6
Biomarkers & diagnostics
27053651
Intrauterine growth-restricted sheep fetuses exhibit smaller hindlimb muscle fibers and lower proportions of insulin-sensitive Type I fibers near term.
[ "Myosin heavy chain-I", "MyHC-I", "myosin heavy chain 1", "myosin heavy chain type I", "myosin-1", "myosin heavy chain slow", "myosin heavy chain slow-twitch", "myosin heavy chain slow type", "myosin heavy chain slow isoform", "myosin heavy chain slow muscle isoform", "myosin heavy chain beta", ...
What protein marker is characteristic of Type I muscle fibers in skeletal muscle?
true
Which hormone involved in metabolic regulation showed reduced levels in the blood of sheep fetuses experiencing intrauterine growth restriction when compared to normal counterparts?
Insulin
2
Therapeutics & clinical evidence
27053651
Intrauterine growth-restricted sheep fetuses exhibit smaller hindlimb muscle fibers and lower proportions of insulin-sensitive Type I fibers near term.
[ "Insulin", "insulin", "INS", "insulins" ]
What endocrine hormone was found at lower plasma concentrations in intrauterine growth-restricted sheep fetuses compared to controls?
true
What molecular method is used to detect Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex in formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded tissue specimens?
Strand displacement amplification
4
Methods & resources
15269300
Detection of Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex in formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded tissue specimens with necrotizing granulomatous inflammation by strand displacement amplification.
[ "Strand displacement amplification", "SDA", "strand-displacement amplification", "strand displacement amplifications", "SDA assays", "strand-displacement amplifications" ]
What molecular method is used to detect Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex in formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded tissue specimens?
false
What infectious agent is a key differential diagnosis in necrotizing granulomatous inflammation of tissue samples?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex
5
Disease causation & pathogens
15269300
Detection of Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex in formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded tissue specimens with necrotizing granulomatous inflammation by strand displacement amplification.
[ "Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex", "MTBC", "M. tuberculosis complex", "Mycobacterium tuberculosis complexes", "MTBCs", "M. tuberculosis complexes", "Mycobacterium tuberculosis-complex", "Mycobacterium tuberculosis group", "M. tuberculosis group", "Tubercle bacilli", "Tubercle bacillus", "Tu...
What infectious agent is a key differential diagnosis in necrotizing granulomatous inflammation of tissue samples?
false
Which type of tissue specimen, often processed for histopathological examination, can present challenges for conventional microbiological tuberculosis diagnosis?
Formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded tissue
4
Methods & resources
15269300
Detection of Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex in formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded tissue specimens with necrotizing granulomatous inflammation by strand displacement amplification.
[ "Formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded tissue", "FFPE tissue", "formalin fixed paraffin embedded tissue", "formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded tissue", "formalin fixed, paraffin embedded tissue", "formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded tissues", "FFPE tissues", "formalin fixed paraffin embedded tissues", "forma...
Which type of tissue specimen, often processed for histopathological examination, can present challenges for conventional microbiological tuberculosis diagnosis?
false
What brain metabolite shows a significant decrease in the visual cortex of migraine patients with aura during photic stimulation?
N-acetylaspartate
6
Biomarkers & diagnostics
15670679
Functional 1H-MRS findings in migraine patients with and without aura assessed interictally.
[ "N-acetylaspartate", "NAA", "N-acetyl aspartate", "N-acetyl-L-aspartate", "N-acetylaspartic acid", "N-acetylaspartates", "N-acetylaspartic acids" ]
What brain metabolite shows a significant decrease in the visual cortex of migraine patients with aura during photic stimulation?
false
Which non-invasive imaging method can be used to assess cerebral metabolites like N-acetylaspartate and lactate within the living brain?
Proton magnetic resonance spectroscopy
4
Methods & resources
15670679
Functional 1H-MRS findings in migraine patients with and without aura assessed interictally.
[ "proton magnetic resonance spectroscopy", "1H-MRS", "proton MRS", "proton MR spectroscopy", "proton magnetic resonance spectroscopic imaging", "1H magnetic resonance spectroscopy", "proton magnetic resonance spectroscopies", "1H-MRSs", "proton MRSs", "proton MR spectroscopies", "proton magnetic ...
Which imaging technique allows for the non-invasive measurement of brain metabolites such as N-acetylaspartate and lactate in vivo?
true
Which form of visual input, characterized by an 8 Hz red light flashing at 14 lux, is frequently employed in neuroimaging research on migraine to elicit activity in the visual cortex?
Photic stimulation
4
Methods & resources
15670679
Functional 1H-MRS findings in migraine patients with and without aura assessed interictally.
[ "photic stimulation", "photic stimulations", "light stimulation", "light stimulations", "visual stimulation", "visual stimulations", "photostimulation", "photostimulations", "light flash stimulation", "light flash stimulations", "flicker stimulation", "flicker stimulations", "flickering ligh...
What type of visual stimulus, specified by a flashing red light at 8 Hz and 14 lx, is commonly used to activate the visual cortex in neuroimaging studies of migraine?
true
Which acid is frequently paired with hydrogen peroxide for extracting metals from used lithium-ion battery cathode materials?
Sulfuric acid
4
Methods & resources
18054156
Recovery of valuable elements from spent Li-batteries.
[ "sulfuric acid", "H2SO4", "oil of vitriol", "sulphuric acid", "sulfuric acids", "sulphuric acids" ]
What acid is commonly used along with hydrogen peroxide to leach metals from spent lithium-ion battery cathodes?
true
Which lithium compound can be recovered as a high-purity product from the recycling of lithium-ion batteries using potassium fluoride precipitation?
Lithium fluoride
2
Therapeutics & clinical evidence
18054156
Recovery of valuable elements from spent Li-batteries.
[ "lithium fluoride", "LiF", "lithium monofluoride", "lithium fluorides" ]
Which lithium compound can be recovered as a high-purity product from the recycling of lithium-ion batteries using potassium fluoride precipitation?
false
Which electrolyte compound, frequently utilized in lithium-ion battery cells and retrievable through recycling methods, is often present as a salt?
Lithium hexafluorophosphate
0
Other
18054156
Recovery of valuable elements from spent Li-batteries.
[ "Lithium hexafluorophosphate", "LiPF6", "lithium hexafluorophosphates", "LiPF6s", "lithium hexafluorophosphate salt", "lithium hexafluorophosphate salts" ]
What electrolyte salt is commonly found in lithium-ion batteries and can be recovered during recycling processes?
true
What is the suggested designation for the new actinomycete species that was discovered in a hypersaline environment within China?
Glycomyces lacisalsi
0
Other
27670917
Glycomyces lacisalsi sp. nov., an actinomycete isolated from a hypersaline habitat.
[ "Glycomyces lacisalsi", "G. lacisalsi", "Glycomyces lacisalsis", "Glycomyces lacisalsii", "Glycomyces lacisalsi strains", "G. lacisalsi strains" ]
What is the proposed name of the novel actinomycete species isolated from a hypersaline habitat in China?
true
What are the two monosaccharides that make up the complete cellular sugar profile in the newly characterized Glycomyces species?
Glucose and galactose
6
Biomarkers & diagnostics
27670917
Glycomyces lacisalsi sp. nov., an actinomycete isolated from a hypersaline habitat.
[ "glucose", "dextrose", "D-glucose", "grape sugar", "blood sugar", "glucoses", "dextroses", "galactose", "D-galactose", "galactopyranose", "galactoses" ]
Which two sugars were identified as the whole-cell sugar pattern components in the novel Glycomyces species described?
true
What is the predominant menaquinone found in the newly identified Glycomyces lacisalsi species?
MK-10(H4)
6
Biomarkers & diagnostics
27670917
Glycomyces lacisalsi sp. nov., an actinomycete isolated from a hypersaline habitat.
[ "MK-10(H4)", "menaquinone-10(4H)", "menaquinone-10 hydrogenated", "MK-10(4H)", "MK-10(H-4)", "menaquinone 10(4H)", "menaquinone 10 (hydrogenated)", "MK-10(H4)s", "menaquinone-10(4H)s" ]
What is the predominant menaquinone found in the newly identified Glycomyces lacisalsi species?
false
Which opioid pain reliever is frequently given as a continuous intravenous infusion for controlling postoperative discomfort, with an average dosing rate near 0.12 mg/kg/hour on the day of abdominal operations?
Pentazocine
2
Therapeutics & clinical evidence
6627285
Clinical experimental studies of postoperative infusion analgesia.
[ "Pentazocine", "Talwin", "pentazocines", "Talwins", "Win 20,228", "Win-20,228", "Win20,228", "Win 20228", "Win20228" ]
What opioid analgesic is commonly administered via continuous infusion for postoperative pain management and has a mean dosage of approximately 0.12 mg/kg/hr on the day of abdominal surgery?
true
Which analgesic, when used in postoperative infusion, is associated with a higher incidence of side effects compared to pentazocine and piritramide?
Ketamine
2
Therapeutics & clinical evidence
6627285
Clinical experimental studies of postoperative infusion analgesia.
[ "Ketamine", "CI-581", "Ketalar", "Ketanest", "Ketaset", "Calipsol", "Ketaminum", "Ketamines" ]
Which analgesic, when used in postoperative infusion, is associated with a higher incidence of side effects compared to pentazocine and piritramide?
false
Which instrument, featuring a 15-cm line, is frequently employed by postoperative patients to assess the severity of their pain?
Visual analog scale
8
Clinical scales & classifications
6627285
Clinical experimental studies of postoperative infusion analgesia.
[ "Visual analog scale", "VAS", "visual analogue scale", "visual analog scales", "VASs", "visual analogue scales" ]
What tool is commonly used by patients to rate their pain intensity after surgery and utilizes a 15-centimeter scale?
true
Which nitric oxide synthase isoform is present only after 24 hours of reperfusion in rat heart tissue following cold ischemia?
Inducible nitric oxide synthase
3
Protein function & signalling
20018145
Expression of the three nitric oxide synthase isoforms and nitric oxide level in the rat heart during cold storage and blood reperfusion.
[ "inducible nitric oxide synthase", "iNOS", "NOS2", "inducible NOS", "inducible nitric-oxide synthase", "inducible nitric oxide synthases", "iNOSs", "NOS2s" ]
Which nitric oxide synthase isoform is present only after 24 hours of reperfusion in rat heart tissue following cold ischemia?
false
Which enzyme is commonly used as a marker of myocardial integrity and shows severe loss after cold ischemia in rat heart transplantation models?
Creatine kinase
6
Biomarkers & diagnostics
20018145
Expression of the three nitric oxide synthase isoforms and nitric oxide level in the rat heart during cold storage and blood reperfusion.
[ "creatine kinase", "CK", "creatine phosphokinase", "CPK", "creatine kinases", "creatine phosphokinases", "CKs", "CPKs" ]
Which enzyme is commonly used as a marker of myocardial integrity and shows severe loss after cold ischemia in rat heart transplantation models?
false
What preservation solution is used to arrest rat heart grafts during cold storage prior to transplantation in experimental studies of nitric oxide pathways?
CRMBM solution
4
Methods & resources
20018145
Expression of the three nitric oxide synthase isoforms and nitric oxide level in the rat heart during cold storage and blood reperfusion.
[ "CRMBM solution", "Centre de Résonance Magnétique Biologique et Médicale solution", "CRMBM preservation solution", "CRMBM cardioplegic solution", "CRMBM solutions" ]
What preservation solution is used to arrest rat heart grafts during cold storage prior to transplantation in experimental studies of nitric oxide pathways?
false
What non-invasive technique is used to measure microcirculatory blood flow in skin tissue?
Laser Doppler flowmetry
4
Methods & resources
2963006
Laser Doppler flowmetry for the early detection of hypertrophic burn scars.
[ "Laser Doppler flowmetry", "LDF", "Laser-Doppler flowmetry", "Laser Doppler flowmeter", "Laser-Doppler flowmeter", "Laser Doppler flowmetries", "Laser-Doppler flowmetries", "Laser Doppler perfusion imaging", "LDPI" ]
What non-invasive technique is used to measure microcirculatory blood flow in skin tissue?
false
What type of abnormal scar is characterized by increased microcirculatory perfusion compared to non-hypertrophic scars?
Hypertrophic scar
5
Disease causation & pathogens
2963006
Laser Doppler flowmetry for the early detection of hypertrophic burn scars.
[ "Hypertrophic scar", "Hypertrophic scars", "Hypertrophic cicatrix", "Hypertrophic cicatrices" ]
What type of abnormal scar is characterized by increased microcirculatory perfusion compared to non-hypertrophic scars?
false
Which operation entails covering a wound by transferring skin harvested from the individual undergoing the procedure?
Autologous skin grafting
2
Therapeutics & clinical evidence
2963006
Laser Doppler flowmetry for the early detection of hypertrophic burn scars.
[ "Autologous skin grafting", "autologous skin graft", "autograft", "autologous graft", "autologous grafting", "autologous skin transplantation", "autologous skin transplants", "skin autograft", "skin autografting", "skin autotransplantation", "skin autotransplant", "autotransplantation of skin"...
What surgical procedure involves the transplantation of a patient’s own skin for wound coverage?
true
Which immunohistochemical stain is frequently employed to detect cytotoxic T lymphocytes within melanoma tumor specimens?
CD8
9
Anatomy & cellular localisation
33110110
Gene expression analysis in formalin fixed paraffin embedded melanomas is associated with density of corresponding immune cells in those tissues.
[ "CD8", "CD8 antigen", "CD8 alpha chain", "CD8A", "CD8 alpha", "CD8 molecule", "CD8+", "CD8-positive", "CD8 T cell marker", "CD8 antigens", "CD8 alpha chains" ]
Which immunohistochemistry marker is commonly used to identify cytotoxic T cells in melanoma tissue samples?
true
What RNA expression profiling method is used to analyze formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded melanoma specimens for immune cell quantification?
qNPA technology
4
Methods & resources
33110110
Gene expression analysis in formalin fixed paraffin embedded melanomas is associated with density of corresponding immune cells in those tissues.
[ "qNPA technology", "quantitative nuclease protection assay", "qNPA", "quantitative Nuclease Protection Assay technology", "qNPA assay", "qNPA assays", "quantitative Nuclease Protection Assays", "quantitative nuclease protection assays" ]
What RNA expression profiling method is used to analyze formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded melanoma specimens for immune cell quantification?
false
Which immune checkpoint protein, often assessed as an exhaustion marker in melanoma, is detected by immunohistochemistry and gene expression methods?
PD-1
6
Biomarkers & diagnostics
33110110
Gene expression analysis in formalin fixed paraffin embedded melanomas is associated with density of corresponding immune cells in those tissues.
[ "PD-1", "PD1", "Programmed cell death protein 1", "Programmed death-1", "Programmed death 1", "CD279", "PD-1s", "PD1s", "Programmed cell death protein 1s", "Programmed death-1s", "Programmed death 1s", "CD279s" ]
Which immune checkpoint protein, often assessed as an exhaustion marker in melanoma, is detected by immunohistochemistry and gene expression methods?
false
What bacterial species produces the antifungal compound azoxybacilin?
Bacillus cereus
2
Therapeutics & clinical evidence
7928678
A new methionine antagonist that has antifungal activity: mode of action.
[ "Bacillus cereus", "B. cereus", "Bacillus cerei", "Bacillus cereus group", "Bacillus cereus sensu stricto", "Bacillus cereus strains", "B. cereus group", "B. cereus sensu stricto", "Bacillus cereus species", "Bacillus cereus bacteria" ]
What bacterial species produces the antifungal compound azoxybacilin?
false
Which class of amino acids diminishes the antifungal activity of azoxybacilin against Saccharomyces cerevisiae when added to growth medium?
Sulfur-containing amino acids
3
Protein function & signalling
7928678
A new methionine antagonist that has antifungal activity: mode of action.
[ "Sulfur-containing amino acids", "sulfur containing amino acids", "sulphur-containing amino acids", "sulphur containing amino acids", "sulfur amino acids", "sulphur amino acids", "sulfur-containing amino acid", "sulphur-containing amino acid", "sulfur amino acid", "sulphur amino acid", "methioni...
Which class of amino acids diminishes the antifungal activity of azoxybacilin against Saccharomyces cerevisiae when added to growth medium?
false
Which fungal genus demonstrates high sensitivity to the antifungal effects of azoxybacilin?
Aspergillus
2
Therapeutics & clinical evidence
7928678
A new methionine antagonist that has antifungal activity: mode of action.
[ "Aspergillus", "Aspergilli", "Aspergillus spp.", "Aspergillus species" ]
What genus of fungi is especially susceptible to the antifungal activity of azoxybacilin?
true
Which chemotherapeutic agent is commonly combined with doxorubicin in the treatment of advanced breast cancer and is classified as a taxane?
Docetaxel
2
Therapeutics & clinical evidence
11341166
[Effectiveness of doxorubicin-docetaxel or doxorubicin-cyclophosphamide combination in advanced breast cancer with distant metastasis].
[ "Docetaxel", "Taxotere", "RP 56976", "docetaxel anhydrous", "docetaxel trihydrate", "docetaxels" ]
Which chemotherapeutic agent is commonly combined with doxorubicin in the treatment of advanced breast cancer and is classified as a taxane?
false
Which alkylating agent is frequently used in combination regimens with doxorubicin for metastatic breast cancer?
Cyclophosphamide
2
Therapeutics & clinical evidence
11341166
[Effectiveness of doxorubicin-docetaxel or doxorubicin-cyclophosphamide combination in advanced breast cancer with distant metastasis].
[ "Cyclophosphamide", "CTX", "CP", "Cytoxan", "Endoxan", "Endoxana", "Genoxal", "Procytox", "cyclophosphamide monohydrate", "cyclophosphamide anhydrous", "cyclophosphamides" ]
Which alkylating agent is frequently used in combination regimens with doxorubicin for metastatic breast cancer?
false
What is the primary endpoint commonly evaluated in phase III randomized clinical trials comparing chemotherapy regimens for advanced breast cancer?
Partial remission
4
Methods & resources
11341166
[Effectiveness of doxorubicin-docetaxel or doxorubicin-cyclophosphamide combination in advanced breast cancer with distant metastasis].
[ "partial remission", "partial response", "PR", "partial remissions", "partial responses", "PRs" ]
What is the primary endpoint commonly evaluated in phase III randomized clinical trials comparing chemotherapy regimens for advanced breast cancer?
false
During the 2020 study period in Baden-Wuerttemberg, Germany, which environment was responsible for most fatalities linked to COVID-19 outbreaks?
Care homes
5
Disease causation & pathogens
33888172
Epidemiological analysis of 3,219 COVID-19 outbreaks in the state of Baden-Wuerttemberg, Germany.
[ "Care homes", "care home", "nursing homes", "nursing home", "long-term care facilities", "long term care facilities", "long-term care facility", "long term care facility", "residential care homes", "residential care home", "elderly care homes", "elderly care home", "assisted living facilitie...
What type of setting accounted for the majority of deaths in COVID-19 outbreaks in Baden-Wuerttemberg, Germany, during the 2020 study period?
true
What rapid diagnostic method is suggested for regular screening of staff and visitors to help control SARS-CoV-2 transmission in care homes?
Rapid antigen point-of-care tests
6
Biomarkers & diagnostics
33888172
Epidemiological analysis of 3,219 COVID-19 outbreaks in the state of Baden-Wuerttemberg, Germany.
[ "Rapid antigen point-of-care tests", "rapid antigen tests", "rapid antigen test", "antigen rapid test", "antigen rapid tests", "point-of-care antigen test", "point-of-care antigen tests", "POC antigen test", "POC antigen tests", "lateral flow test", "lateral flow tests", "lateral flow immunoas...
What rapid diagnostic method is suggested for regular screening of staff and visitors to help control SARS-CoV-2 transmission in care homes?
false
Which software tool and version did the researchers employ to conduct their epidemiological analysis of COVID-19 outbreaks in the study?
R program version 3.6.3
4
Methods & resources
33888172
Epidemiological analysis of 3,219 COVID-19 outbreaks in the state of Baden-Wuerttemberg, Germany.
[ "R program version 3.6.3", "R", "R program", "R software", "R statistical software", "R statistical computing", "R language", "R environment", "R version 3.6.3", "R 3.6.3", "R-project", "R project", "R statistical package", "R programs", "R softwares" ]
What statistical software was used for the epidemiological analysis of COVID-19 outbreaks in the referenced study?
true
Which assessment is frequently utilized to evaluate the isometric endurance capacity of the back musculature in people without health issues?
Biering-Sørensen test
8
Clinical scales & classifications
18396411
Correlations between short-time Fourier- and continuous wavelet transforms in the analysis of localized back and hip muscle fatigue during isometric contractions.
[ "Biering-Sørensen test", "Biering-Sorensen test", "Biering–Sørensen test", "Biering–Sorensen test", "Sorensen test", "Biering-Sørensen back endurance test", "Biering-Sorensen back endurance test", "Sorensen back endurance test", "Biering-Sørensen tests", "Biering-Sorensen tests", "Sorensen tests...
What test is commonly used to assess isometric endurance of the back muscles in healthy individuals?
true
Which two signal processing methods are frequently compared for analyzing surface electromyographic (EMG) spectral parameters in muscle fatigue studies?
Short-time Fourier transform and continuous wavelet transform
4
Methods & resources
18396411
Correlations between short-time Fourier- and continuous wavelet transforms in the analysis of localized back and hip muscle fatigue during isometric contractions.
[ "Short-time Fourier transform", "STFT", "short time Fourier transform", "short-time Fourier transforms", "STFTs", "short time Fourier transforms", "Continuous wavelet transform", "CWT", "continuous wavelet transforms", "CWTs" ]
Which two signal processing methods are frequently compared for analyzing surface electromyographic (EMG) spectral parameters in muscle fatigue studies?
false
What type of muscle contraction is typically analyzed when assessing localized back and hip muscle fatigue using EMG?
Isometric contraction
9
Anatomy & cellular localisation
18396411
Correlations between short-time Fourier- and continuous wavelet transforms in the analysis of localized back and hip muscle fatigue during isometric contractions.
[ "isometric contraction", "isometric contractions", "static contraction", "static contractions", "isometric muscle contraction", "isometric muscle contractions", "static muscle contraction", "static muscle contractions" ]
What type of muscle contraction is typically analyzed when assessing localized back and hip muscle fatigue using EMG?
false
Which specific neurotrophic molecule plays a critical role in the establishment of synaptic connections within the developing hippocampus during the early stages of brain maturation?
Brain-derived neurotrophic factor
3
Protein function & signalling
28178750
Prolonged maternal separation attenuates BDNF-ERK signaling correlated with spine formation in the hippocampus during early brain development.
[ "Brain-derived neurotrophic factor", "BDNF", "brain derived neurotrophic factor", "brain-derived neurotrophic factors", "BDNFs", "brain derived neurotrophic factors" ]
Which neurotrophic factor is essential for synapse formation during early brain development in the hippocampus?
true
Which intracellular kinase is activated by brain-derived neurotrophic factor signaling and is involved in neuronal plasticity in the hippocampus?
Extracellular signal-regulated kinase
3
Protein function & signalling
28178750
Prolonged maternal separation attenuates BDNF-ERK signaling correlated with spine formation in the hippocampus during early brain development.
[ "Extracellular signal-regulated kinase", "ERK", "ERK1", "ERK2", "MAPK1", "MAPK3", "p44 MAPK", "p42 MAPK", "mitogen-activated protein kinase", "mitogen activated protein kinase", "extracellular signal regulated kinase", "extracellular signal-regulated kinases", "ERKs", "mitogen-activated pr...
Which intracellular kinase is activated by brain-derived neurotrophic factor signaling and is involved in neuronal plasticity in the hippocampus?
false
Which subregion of the hippocampus shows reduced mature spine density in pyramidal neurons following early-life stress such as maternal separation?
Cornu ammonis 1
9
Anatomy & cellular localisation
28178750
Prolonged maternal separation attenuates BDNF-ERK signaling correlated with spine formation in the hippocampus during early brain development.
[ "Cornu ammonis 1", "CA1", "CA-1", "hippocampal CA1", "CA1 region", "CA1 subfield", "CA1 area", "Cornu ammonis area 1", "Cornu ammonis region 1", "Cornu ammonis field 1", "CA1 regions", "CA1 subfields", "CA1 areas" ]
Which subregion of the hippocampus shows reduced mature spine density in pyramidal neurons following early-life stress such as maternal separation?
false
What purine nucleoside analog is known to induce apoptosis via the intrinsic pathway in various cell types?
Cladribine
2
Therapeutics & clinical evidence
25431797
Intrinsic apoptosis pathway in fallopian tube epithelial cells induced by cladribine.
[ "Cladribine", "2-chlorodeoxyadenosine", "2-chloro-2'-deoxyadenosine", "CdA", "Leustatin", "cladribines" ]
What purine nucleoside analog is known to induce apoptosis via the intrinsic pathway in various cell types?
false
Which tumor suppressor protein is involved in mediating the intrinsic apoptosis pathway activated by cladribine?
p53 protein
3
Protein function & signalling
25431797
Intrinsic apoptosis pathway in fallopian tube epithelial cells induced by cladribine.
[ "p53 protein", "p53", "TP53", "tumor protein p53", "cellular tumor antigen p53", "antigen NY-CO-13", "phosphoprotein p53", "tumor suppressor p53", "p53 proteins" ]
Which tumor suppressor protein is involved in mediating the intrinsic apoptosis pathway activated by cladribine?
false
What family of proapoptotic proteins participates in cladribine-induced intrinsic apoptosis?
Bcl-2 family
3
Protein function & signalling
25431797
Intrinsic apoptosis pathway in fallopian tube epithelial cells induced by cladribine.
[ "Bcl-2 family", "Bcl2 family", "Bcl-2 protein family", "Bcl2 protein family", "Bcl-2 family proteins", "Bcl2 family proteins", "Bcl-2 proteins", "Bcl2 proteins", "Bcl-2-related proteins", "Bcl2-related proteins", "B-cell lymphoma 2 family", "B-cell leukemia/lymphoma 2 family", "B-cell lympho...
What family of proapoptotic proteins participates in cladribine-induced intrinsic apoptosis?
false
Which primary malignant tumor of the liver is frequently managed with techniques such as percutaneous alcohol injection and radiofrequency thermal ablation?
Hepatocellular carcinoma
5
Disease causation & pathogens
16525648
Time-lag performance of radiofrequency ablation after percutaneous ethanol injection for the treatment of hepatocellular carcinoma.
[ "hepatocellular carcinoma", "HCC", "hepatoma", "primary liver cancer", "primary hepatocellular carcinoma", "hepatocellular carcinomas", "HCCs", "hepatomas" ]
What liver cancer is commonly treated using percutaneous ethanol injection and radiofrequency ablation?
true
Which method for tumor destruction utilizes high-frequency alternating electrical currents for tissue ablation?
Radiofrequency ablation
2
Therapeutics & clinical evidence
16525648
Time-lag performance of radiofrequency ablation after percutaneous ethanol injection for the treatment of hepatocellular carcinoma.
[ "Radiofrequency ablation", "RFA", "radio-frequency ablation", "radio frequency ablation", "radiofrequency catheter ablation", "radiofrequency ablations", "RF ablation", "RF ablations" ]
Which ablation technique involves the application of high-frequency alternating current to destroy tumor tissue?
true
What chemical agent is injected in percutaneous ethanol injection therapy for hepatocellular carcinoma?
Ethanol
2
Therapeutics & clinical evidence
16525648
Time-lag performance of radiofrequency ablation after percutaneous ethanol injection for the treatment of hepatocellular carcinoma.
[ "ethanol", "ethyl alcohol", "alcohol", "EtOH", "grain alcohol", "ethylalcohol", "ethanols" ]
What chemical agent is injected in percutaneous ethanol injection therapy for hepatocellular carcinoma?
false
What type of electrode array is designed to interface with peripheral nerve fascicles as small as 50 to 300 micrometers?
Microchannel Electrode Array
4
Methods & resources
25570370
A novel Microchannel Electrode Array: towards bioelectronic medical interfacing of small peripheral nerves.
[ "Microchannel Electrode Array", "microchannel electrode array", "microchannel arrays", "microchannel electrode arrays", "microchannel neural electrode array", "microchannel neural electrode arrays", "microchannel array", "microchannel arrays", "microchannel neural interface", "microchannel neural ...
What type of electrode array is designed to interface with peripheral nerve fascicles as small as 50 to 300 micrometers?
false
Within the field of bioelectronic medicine, what part of the nervous system is commonly chosen for neuromodulation interventions as a substitute for drug-based treatments?
Peripheral nervous system
9
Anatomy & cellular localisation
25570370
A novel Microchannel Electrode Array: towards bioelectronic medical interfacing of small peripheral nerves.
[ "Peripheral nervous system", "PNS", "peripheral nervous systems" ]
In bioelectronic medicine, which division of the nervous system is frequently targeted for neuromodulation as an alternative to pharmacological therapies?
true
What is the primary function of a neural electrode array that can both record from and stimulate multiple channels in peripheral nerves?
Neural interfacing
3
Protein function & signalling
25570370
A novel Microchannel Electrode Array: towards bioelectronic medical interfacing of small peripheral nerves.
[ "Neural interfacing", "neural interface", "neural interfaces", "neural interfacing technology", "neural electrode interfacing", "neural electrode interface", "neural electrode interfaces", "nerve interfacing", "nerve interface", "nerve interfaces", "neurointerface", "neurointerfaces", "neuro...
What is the primary function of a neural electrode array that can both record from and stimulate multiple channels in peripheral nerves?
false
What anatomical structure is often used as a landmark to help identify the appendix on abdominal computed tomography scans?
Ileocecal valve
9
Anatomy & cellular localisation
19135927
Why can we not see a normal appendix on CT? An evaluation of the factors influencing nonvisualization of a normal appendix by 64-slice MDCT.
[ "Ileocecal valve", "ileocaecal valve", "Bauhin's valve", "valve of Bauhin", "ileocolic valve", "ileocecal valves", "ileocaecal valves", "Bauhin's valves", "valves of Bauhin", "ileocolic valves" ]
What anatomical structure is often used as a landmark to help identify the appendix on abdominal computed tomography scans?
false
What is the standard imaging technique used to assess the appendix in individuals presenting with possible abdominal disorders?
Multidetector computed tomography (MDCT)
4
Methods & resources
19135927
Why can we not see a normal appendix on CT? An evaluation of the factors influencing nonvisualization of a normal appendix by 64-slice MDCT.
[ "Multidetector computed tomography (MDCT)", "MDCT", "multidetector CT", "multidetector computed tomography", "multislice computed tomography", "multislice CT", "MSCT", "multi-detector computed tomography", "multi-detector CT", "multi-slice computed tomography", "multi-slice CT", "multidetector...
Which imaging modality is commonly utilized to visualize the appendix in patients with suspected abdominal pathology?
true