anatomy

Question: Which of the following is a disorder characterized by uncontrollable episodes of falling asleep during the day?

Choices:
- Dyslexia
- Epilepsy
- Hydrocephalus
- Narcolepsy


anatomy

Question: Which statement concerning the atrioventricular bundle is correct?

Choices:
- It is formed of autonomic nerve processes and is the only electrical connection between the atria and the ventricles.
- It is formed of Purkinje fibres and is the only electrical connection between the atria and the ventricles
- It is formed of autonomic nerve processes and forms one of several electrical connections between the atria and ventricles.
- It is formed of Purkinje fibres and forms one of several electrical connections between the atria and ventricles.


anatomy

Question: A "dished face" profile is often associated with

Choices:
- a protruding mandible due to reactivation of the condylar cartilage by acromegaly.
- a recessive maxilla due to failure of elongation of the cranial base.
- an enlarged frontal bone due to hydrocephaly.
- defective development of the maxillary air sinus.


anatomy

Question: Gastrulation is the process of

Choices:
- mesoderm formation and occurs after neurulation.
- ectomesenchyme formation and occurs before neurulation.
- mesoderm formation and occurs before neurulation.
- ectomesenchyme formation and occurs after neurulation.


anatomy

Question: The palatine processes begin to fuse at

Choices:
- six weeks post-fertilization.
- eight weeks post-fertilization.
- ten weeks post-fertilization.
- twelve weeks post-fertilization.


anatomy

Question: In relation to the rib, the corresponding intercostal nerve lies

Choices:
- deep to its superior border.
- superficial to its superior border.
- deep to its inferior border.
- superficial to its inferior border.


anatomy

Question: Which of the following substances is found in greater quantity in exhaled air?

Choices:
- Carbon dioxide
- Carbon monoxide
- Nitrogen
- Oxygen


anatomy

Question: Palatine shelf elevation is due to the effect of

Choices:
- descent of the tongue.
- changes in flexure of the developing brain.
- hydrophilic molecules increasing turgor pressure in the palatine shelves.
- a combination of these three processes.


anatomy

Question: Which of the following terms describes the motion of bending the forearm toward the body?

Choices:
- Abduction
- Eversion
- Flexion
- Pronation


anatomy

Question: Which of the following best describes the structure that collects urine in the body?

Choices:
- Bladder
- Kidney
- Ureter
- Urethra


anatomy

Question: Which of the following structures is derived from ectomesenchyme?

Choices:
- Motor neurons
- Skeletal muscles
- Melanocytes
- Sweat glands


anatomy

Question: Osteoclasts

Choices:
- deposit bone and differentiate from periosteal mesenchymal cells.
- resorb bone and differentiate from periosteal mesenchymal cells.
- deposit bone and differentiate from monocytes.
- resorb bone and differentiate from monocytes.


anatomy

Question: A patient with damage to their cervical sympathetic chain will show the following signs and symptoms.

Choices:
- Pupillary constriction
- Pupillary constriction and vasodilation of facial vessels
- Pupillary constriction, vasodilation of facial vessels and increased facial sweating
- Pupillary constriction, vasodilation of facial vessels, increased facial sweating and decreased lacrimation


anatomy

Question: The mucosa of the upper larynx is innervated by the

Choices:
- internal laryngeal nerve which is the afferent limb of the cough reflex.
- external laryngeal nerve which is the afferent limb of the gag reflex.
- internal laryngeal nerve which is the afferent limb of the gag reflex.
- external laryngeal nerve which is the afferent limb of the cough reflex.


anatomy

Question: Cerebrospinal fluid circulates around the brain between the

Choices:
- skull and dura mater.
- dura mater and arachnoid mater.
- arachnoid and pia maters.
- pia mater and brain surface.


anatomy

Question: Noradrenaline is the neurotransmitter between which of the two structures below?

Choices:
- parasympathetic pre- and post-ganglionic neurons
- sympathetic pre- and post-ganglionic neurons
- parasympathetic post-ganglionic neurons and target organs
- sympathetic post-ganglionic neurons and target organs


anatomy

Question: A malignant tumour is damaging the patient's glossopharyngeal nerve. They will experience

Choices:
- loss of taste over the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.
- loss of somaesthetic sensation over the anterior two thirds of the tongue.
- loss of taste and somaesthetic sensation over the posterior third of the tongue.
- paralysis of the muscles of the tongue.


anatomy

Question: Calcium, potassium, and sodium are classified as which of the following?

Choices:
- Androgens
- Catecholamines
- Electrolytes
- Estrogens


anatomy

Question: Which of the following muscles initiates elevation of the mandible?

Choices:
- Masseter
- Temporalis
- Lateral pterygoid
- Medial pterygoid.


anatomy

Question: Which of the following allows air to pass into the lungs?

Choices:
- Aorta
- Esophagus
- Trachea
- Pancreas


anatomy

Question: A patient suffers damage to the orbit in a road traffic incident resulting in damage to the third cranial nerve. Which of the following signs will be present?

Choices:
- Pupillary constriction and a medial strabismus
- Pupillary dilatation and a medial strabismus
- Pupillary constriction and a lateral strabismus
- Pupillary dilatation and a lateral strabismus


anatomy

Question: Which of the following is the master gland of the endocrine system?

Choices:
- Adrenal
- Pancreas
- Pineal
- Pituitary


anatomy

Question: On which surfaces of the teeth is dental plaque most likely to accumulate in the mouth of a patient with poor oral hygiene?

Choices:
- The palatal surfaces of the upper molars and lingual surfaces of the lower incisors.
- The buccal surfaces of the upper molars and lingual surfaces of the lower incisors.
- The palatal surfaces of the upper molars and labial surfaces of the lower incisors.
- The buccal surfaces of the upper molars and labial surfaces of the lower incisors.


anatomy

Question: Which one of the following statements about the growth of the mandible is correct?

Choices:
- The mental symphysis closes at about 1 year postnatally
- The condylar growth cartilage ceases activity at puberty
- The ossification centre appears about 8 weeks I.U.L medial to Meckel's cartilage
- The functional matrix acting on the angle of the mandible is the lateral pterygoid muscle


anatomy

Question: The thoracic cage is a structural unit important for which of the following functions?

Choices:
- Alimentation
- Menstruation
- Mentation
- Respiration


anatomy

Question: Loss of somatic sensation over the anterior two-thirds of the tongue indicates damage to the

Choices:
- lingual branch of the mandibular trigeminal nerve.
- chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve.
- lingual branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve.
- hypoglossal nerve.


anatomy

Question: A patient is stabbed in the neck. You suspect damage to the accessory nerve in the posterior triangle. You would test nerve function by asking the patient to

Choices:
- extend their neck against resistance.
- extend their neck without impairment.
- lift their shoulders against resistance.
- lift their shoulders without impairment.


anatomy

Question: A possible effect of damage to the third cranial nerve by trauma to the orbit is

Choices:
- a convergent strabismus.
- ptosis.
- pupillary contriction.
- bitemporal hemianopia.


anatomy

Question: Food is prevented from entering the larynx during the pharyngeal phase of swallowing by

Choices:
- constriction of the laryngeal entrance.
- upward movement of the epiglottis.
- downward movement of the larynx.
- increase in respiratory rate.


anatomy

Question: The dorsal roots of all spinal nerves contain

Choices:
- sensory neuronal processes.
- sensory and autonomic neuronal processes.
- motor neuronal processes.
- motor and autonomic neuronal processes.


anatomy

Question: The walls of the maxillary sinus are sinus is related to

Choices:
- the floor of the orbit.
- the floor of the orbit and the upper posterior teeth.
- the floor of the orbit, the upper posterior teeth and the infratemporal fossa.
- the floor of the orbit, the upper posterior teeth, the infratemporal fossa and the hard palate.


anatomy

Question: You notice a lesion on the labial alveolar mucosa of the lower right lateral incisor tooth of one of your patients and decide to take a biopsy to send for oral pathology report Which nerve would require local anaesthesia in order to carry out a pain-free biopsy?

Choices:
- The incisive nerve
- The mental nerve
- The buccal nerve
- The lingual nerve


anatomy

Question: Ectoderm gives rise to

Choices:
- the neural tube.
- ectomesenchymal cells.
- dental enamel.
- all three structures.


anatomy

Question: The head of the sixth rib articulates with

Choices:
- The inferior articular facet of T5 and superior articular facet of T6.
- The inferior articular demifacet of T5 and superior articular facet of T6.
- The inferior articular demifacet of T5 and the superior articular demifacet of T6.
- The superior and inferior demifacets of T6.


anatomy

Question: A patient suffers a CVA in the area of the left internal capsule conveying motor neurons to the right leg. The patient's leg will exhibit

Choices:
- spastic paralysis.
- flaccid paralysis.
- tremor.
- hyporeflexia.


anatomy

Question: Which of one of the following statements about the postnatal growth of the maxilla is correct?

Choices:
- Pneumatisation by enlargement of the developing maxillary sinus ceases at puberty
- Space is created for the eruption of the permanent molars by resorption of the maxillary tuberosity
- The zygomaticomaxillary sutures contribute to increase in height and length of the maxilla
- The intermaxillary suture closes about eight years postnatally


anatomy

Question: A patient has a fracture in which the radius is bent but not displaced, and the skin is intact. This type of fracture is known as which of the following?

Choices:
- Closed, greenstick
- Complex, comminuted
- Compound, transverse
- Open, spiral


anatomy

Question: Which of the following muscles are derived from the first brachial arch?

Choices:
- The muscles of mastication
- The muscles of mastication and anterior belly of digastric
- The muscles of mastication and anterior and posterior bellies of digastric
- The muscles of mastication, anterior and posterior bellies of digastric and geniohyoid


anatomy

Question: Examination of a patient indicates that they have a medially directed strabismus (squint). This could be due to damage to the

Choices:
- oculomotor nerve.
- trochlear nerve.
- ophthalmic trigeminal nerve.
- abducens nerve.


anatomy

Question: A patient suffers a broken neck with damage to the spinal cord at the level of the sixth cervical vertebra.

Choices:
- They will be unable to breathe without life support.
- They will only be able to breathe quietly.
- It is impossible to predict an effect on breathing.
- Breathing will be unaffected.


anatomy

Question: Complete bilateral cleft palate is due to failure of fusion of the

Choices:
- palatine processes.
- palatine and frontonasal processes.
- palatine, frontonasal and secondary nasal processes.
- palatine, frontonasal, secondary nasal processes and mandibular processes.


anatomy

Question: Which of the following is a substance that aids the transmission of nerve impulses to the muscles?

Choices:
- Acetylcholine
- Cholecystokinin
- Deoxyribose
- Oxytocin


anatomy

Question: The lateral pterygoid muscle

Choices:
- is attached to the coronoid process and elevates the mandible.
- is attached to the condylar process and elevates the mandible.
- is attached to the coronoid process and protrudes the mandible.
- is attached to the condylar process and protrudes the mandible.


anatomy

Question: Which of the following structures is part of the small intestine?

Choices:
- Ascending colon
- Cecum
- Ileum
- Sigmoid colon


anatomy

Question: The walls of bronchioles contain

Choices:
- cartilage, smooth muscle and respiratory epithelium.
- cartilage and smooth muscle.
- cartilage and respiratory epithelium.
- smooth muscle and respiratory epithelium.


anatomy

Question: Which of the following options completes the following statement? "The right atrioventricular valveâ¦"

Choices:
- is a semilunar valve
- is prevented from everting by papillary muscles.
- is open during systole.
- prevents blood returning from the pulmonary trunk as the heart relaxes.


anatomy

Question: The bones of the viscerocranium develop initially by

Choices:
- endochondral ossification and follow the somatic growth pattern.
- endochondral ossification and follow the neural growth pattern.
- intramembranous ossification and follow the somatic growth pattern.
- intramembranous ossification and follow the neural growth pattern.


anatomy

Question: Which muscle is the most active during a right lateral excursion of the mandible?

Choices:
- Left lateral pterygoid muscle
- Right lateral pterygoid muscle
- Left medial pterygoid muscle
- Right medial pterygoid muscle


anatomy

Question: Which of the following is located beneath the diaphragm in the left upper quadrant of the abdominal cavity?

Choices:
- Appendix
- Duodenum
- Spleen
- Pancreas


anatomy

Question: Which of the following closes and seals off the lower airway during swallowing?

Choices:
- Alveoli
- Epiglottis
- Larynx
- Uvula


anatomy

Question: Saliva contains an enzyme that acts upon which of the following nutrients?

Choices:
- Starches
- Proteins
- Fats
- Minerals


anatomy

Question: Which of the following is the point at which an impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another neuron?

Choices:
- Dendrite
- Glial cell
- Nerve center
- Synapse


anatomy

Question: In the brain stem, pathways for:

Choices:
- nociception decussate in the medial lemniscus
- skilled movements decussate in the medial lemniscus
- skilled motor movements decussate in the pyramids.
- discriminative touch decussate in the pyramids.


anatomy

Question: Patients with which of the following diseases are treated with injections of vitamin B-12?

Choices:
- Bell's palsy
- Crohn's disease
- Pernicious anemia
- Graves' disease


anatomy

Question: In a patient with a normal healthy mouth, you would expect the mucosa covering the alveolar process supporting the mandibular teeth to be

Choices:
- light pink in colour on both sides of the mucogingigival junction.
- light pink below the mucogingival junction and red above it.
- red below the mucogingival junction and light pink above it.
- red on both sides of the mucogingival junction.


anatomy

Question: Primary motor cortex activity results in

Choices:
- bilateral contraction of antigravity limb muscles.
- bilateral contraction of limb musculature.
- contraction of ipsilateral limb musculature.
- contraction of contralateral limb musculature.


anatomy

Question: A lesion causing compression of the facial nerve at the stylomastoid foramen will cause ipsilateral

Choices:
- paralysis of the facial muscles.
- paralysis of the facial muscles and loss of taste.
- paralysis of the facial muscles, loss of taste and lacrimation.
- paralysis of the facial muscles, loss of taste, lacrimation and decreased salivation.


anatomy

Question: Which of the following is the large bone found superior to the patella and inferior to the ischium?

Choices:
- Calcaneus
- Femur
- Symphysis pubis
- Tibia


anatomy

Question: Oxygenated blood is carried to the heart by which of the following structures?

Choices:
- Aorta
- Carotid arteries
- Inferior vena cava
- Pulmonary veins


anatomy

Question: Which of the following is an accessory organ of the gastrointestinal system that is responsible for secreting insulin?

Choices:
- Adrenal gland
- Gallbladder
- Liver
- Pancreas


anatomy

Question: The coronal suture joins the

Choices:
- frontal and parietal bones.
- left and right parietal bones.
- parietal and occipital bones.
- parietal, squamous temporal and greater wing of the sphenoid.


anatomy

Question: During swallowing the

Choices:
- auditory tube opens.
- cricopharyngeus muscle contracts.
- rima glottis opens.
- gag reflex is suspended.


anatomy

Question: Which of the following anatomical regions of abdomen lies just distal to the sternum?

Choices:
- Epigastric
- Hypochondriac
- Hypogastric
- Lumbar


anatomy

Question: Which one of the following brain areas is supplied by branches of the subclavian arteries?

Choices:
- The frontal lobe
- The parietal lobe
- The hypothalamus
- The cerebellum


anatomy

Question: Blood flows from the right ventricle of the heart into which of the following structures?

Choices:
- Inferior vena cava
- Left ventricle
- Pulmonary arteries
- Pulmonary veins


anatomy

Question: Where is the sinoatrial node located?

Choices:
- Between the left atrium and the left ventricle
- Between the right atrium and the right ventricle
- In the upper wall of the right atrium
- In the upper wall of the left ventricle


anatomy

Question: The coronary arteries

Choices:
- arise from the arch of the aorta and fill during diastole.
- arise from the ascending aorta and fill during systole.
- arise from the arch of the aorta and fill during systole.
- arise from the ascending aorta and fill during diastole.


anatomy

Question: A pulse may be felt on a patient's face where the

Choices:
- facial artery crosses the mandible.
- facial artery crosses the maxilla.
- superficial temporal artery crosses the maxilla.
- superficial temporal artery crosses the orbital rim.


anatomy

Question: Which of the following bones has a process that joins with the zygomatic bone to form the zygomatic arch?

Choices:
- The maxillary bone
- The temporal bone
- The sphenoid bone
- The frontal bone


anatomy

Question: Parasympathetic preganglionic axons leave the CNS with the

Choices:
- cervical spinal nerves.
- thoracic spinal nerves.
- lumbar spinal nerves.
- sacral spinal nerves.


anatomy

Question: During an inferior alveolar nerve block the needle ideally passes

Choices:
- posterior and medial to medial pterygoid.
- anterior and lateral to medial pterygoid.
- through medial pterygoid.
- inferior to medial pterygoid.


anatomy

Question: Which of the following foramina pierce the sphenoid bone?

Choices:
- The foramen ovale
- The foramen ovale and rotundum
- The foramen ovale, rotundum and spinosum
- The foramen ovale, rotundum and spinosum and foramen lacerum


anatomy

Question: Which of the following is a structural, fibrous protein found in the dermis?

Choices:
- Collagen
- Heparin
- Lipocyte
- Melanin


anatomy

Question: In which of the following positions does a patient lie face down?

Choices:
- Dorsal
- Erect
- Lateral
- Prone


anatomy

Question: The respiratory tract is crossed by the isthmus of the thyroid gland at the level of the

Choices:
- thyroid cartilage.
- cricothyroid membrane.
- cricoid cartilage.
- tracheal rings.


anatomy

Question: The crown of a very carious tooth suddenly fractures while the patient is standing eating at a take-away food outlet and a fragment is inhaled. It is more likely to enter the

Choices:
- right lung because the right main bronchus is wider and more vertical than the left.
- left lung because the left main bronchus is wider and more vertical than the right.
- right lung or left lung because the two main bronchi are of equal size and at the same angulation.
- right or left lung because there are no factors predisposing to the fragment going in one particular direction.


anatomy

Question: Fertilization of an ovum by a spermatozoon occurs in which of the following structures?

Choices:
- Cervix
- Fallopian tube
- Ovary
- Uterus


anatomy

Question: In men, specimens for gonococcal cultures are most commonly obtained from which of the following structures?

Choices:
- Anus
- Bladder
- Urethra
- Testicle


anatomy

Question: When an emergency opening into the airway is required, the cricothyroid membrane should be pierced immediately

Choices:
- superior to the thyroid cartilage.
- inferior to the thyroid cartilage.
- inferior to the cricoid cartilage.
- superior to the thyroid isthmus.


anatomy

Question: Which of the following conditions is characterized by the presence of kidney stones (renal calculi)?

Choices:
- Glomerulonephritis
- Interstitial nephritis
- Nephrolithiasis
- Polycystic kidney


anatomy

Question: Male hormones are produced by which of the following?

Choices:
- Glans penis
- Prepuce
- Prostate
- Testes


anatomy

Question: In the fetus, the ductus arteriosus passes blood from the

Choices:
- pulmonary vein to the aorta.
- aorta to pulmonary vein.
- pulmonary artery to the aorta.
- aorta to the pulmonary artery.


anatomy

Question: Which of the following structures accompany the oesophagus through the diaphragm?

Choices:
- The phrenic nerves
- The splanchnic nerves
- The sympathetic trunks
- The vagus nerves


anatomy

Question: The infraorbital nerve

Choices:
- is a terminal branch of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve.
- is a terminal branch of the maxillary branch of the facial nerve.
- carries parasympathetic secretomotor neurons to the lacrimal gland.
- innervates the inferior part of the orbicularis oculi muscle.


anatomy

Question: Macrostomia results from failure of fusion of

Choices:
- maxillary and mandibular processes.
- left and right mandibular processes.
- maxillary and frontonasal processes.
- mandibular and hyoid arches.


anatomy

Question: The parotid duct runs

Choices:
- deep to masseter and enters the mouth opposite the upper second molar.
- superficial to masseter and enters the mouth opposite the upper second molar.
- deep to masseter and enters the mouth opposite the upper second premolar.
- superficial to masseter and enters the mouth opposite the upper second premolar.


anatomy

Question: A patient cuts a peripheral motor nerve in their wrist when they fall through a plate glass window. If the nerve does not regenerate, after about 6 months the muscles it normally innervates will show signs of which of the four options below?

Choices:
- spastic paralysis
- flaccid paralysis
- atrophy
- contracture


anatomy

Question: The mucosa of the hard palate is

Choices:
- keratinised and has submucosa and minor salivary glands posterolaterally.
- non-keratinised and has submucosa and minor salivary glands posteromedially.
- keratinised and lacks submucosa and minor salivary glands.
- non-keratinised and lacks submucosa and minor salivary glands.


anatomy

Question: Parasympathetic preganglionic nerves leave the central nervous system with the

Choices:
- third cranial nerves.
- fourth cranial nerves.
- fifth cranial nerves.
- sixth cranial nerves.


anatomy

Question: Which of the following best describes the process whereby the stomach muscles contract to propel food through the digestive tract?

Choices:
- Absorption
- Emulsion
- Peristalsis
- Regurgitation


anatomy

Question: Which sequence describes the systemic circulation?

Choices:
- Left ventricle â aorta â arteries â veins â capillaries
- Left ventricle â aorta â arteries âcapillaries â veins
- Right ventricle â pulmonary trunk â arteries â capillaries âveins
- Right ventricle â pulmonary trunk â arteries â veins â capillaries


anatomy

Question: Which of the following is the lymphoid organ that is a reservoir for red blood cells and filters organisms from the blood?

Choices:
- Appendix
- Gallbladder
- Pancreas
- Spleen


anatomy

Question: The spheno-occipital synchondrosis

Choices:
- is a secondary growth cartilage.
- influences the position of the viscerocranium.
- ceases activity at 7 years of age.
- can be reactivated in patients affected by acromegaly.


anatomy

Question: The regional lymphatic drainage of the left side of the tip of the tongue is to the

Choices:
- left submental lymph node.
- left and right submental lymph nodes.
- left submandibular lymph node.
- left and right submandibular lymph nodes.


anatomy

Question: You suspect that your patient has an enlarged submandibular salivary gland. You expect the enlarged gland

Choices:
- to be palpable intraorally..
- to be palpable extraorally.
- to be palpable both intra- and extraorally.
- only to be detectable by radiographical examination.


anatomy

Question: When you examine a patient who has suffered an unfavourable fracture of the body of the mandible, you would expect the

Choices:
- anterior fragment to be displaced downwards by the action of the digastric muscle.
- posterior fragment to be displaced anteriorly by the action of the lateral pterygoid muscle.
- anterior fragment to be displaced backwards by action of the temporalis muscle.
- posterior fragment to be displaced medially by action of the medial pterygoid muscle.


anatomy

Question: Which of the following cavities are separated by the diaphragm?

Choices:
- Abdominal and pelvic
- Cranial and spinal
- Thoracic and abdominal
- Pericardial and pleural


anatomy

Question: Which of the following paranasal sinuses open into the middle meatus?

Choices:
- The anterior ethmoidal sinuses
- The anterior ethmoidal and frontal sinuses
- The anterior ethmoidal, frontal and maxillary sinuses
- The anterior ethmoidal, frontal, maxillary and sphenoidal sinuses


anatomy

Question: Which of the following cranial nerves is related to the sense of smell?

Choices:
- Abducens
- Hypoglossal
- Olfactory
- Trochlear


anatomy

Question: A successful infraorbital nerve block will produce anaesthesia of the

Choices:
- maxillary anterior teeth.
- maxillary anterior teeth and their labial gingivae.
- maxillary anterior teeth, their labial gingivae and the upper lip.
- maxillary anterior teeth, their labial gingivae, the upper lip and anterior hard palate.


business_ethics

Question: The Anglo-American model being considered the best model in light of the recession in the late 2000s.

Choices:
- 1,2,3
- 1,3,4
- 2,3,4
- 1,2,3,4


business_ethics

Question: Post-modern ethics assert that ethics are context and individual specific and as such have an internal guide to ethics.

Choices:
- 2,3
- 1,3
- 1,2,3
- 1,2


business_ethics

Question: Insider trading undermines the fiduciary relationship.

Choices:
- 1,2,3
- 1,2,4
- 2,3,4
- 1,2,3,4


business_ethics

Question: Cognitive ______ models such as the Theory of _________ serve to try and explain consumer behaviour, but arguably somewhat oversimplify and overestimate individual ________.

Choices:
- Decision, Market equilibrium, Rationality
- Attitudinal, Planned Behaviour, Social pressures
- Decision, Planned behaviour, Rationality
- Attitudinal, Market equilibrium, Social pressures


business_ethics

Question: ________ is the right of a consumer to control what information companies can collect about them and how it is stored, used and shared.

Choices:
- Consumer inclusion
- Consumer control
- Consumer privacy
- Consumer exclusion


business_ethics

Question: Affirmative action involves ________ attempts to target ______ who are _________ within an organisation's workforce, for instance by trying to ______ the proportion of women, disabled or racial minorities in senior management positions.

Choices:
- Proactive, Groups, Under-represented, Increase
- Passive, Groups, Under-represented, Retain
- Proactive, Individuals, Represented, Increase
- Passive, Individuals, Represented, Retain


business_ethics

Question: _________, such as _______ and _______ are processes by which organisations implement environmental goals, policies and responsibilities and ensure regular auditing and reporting, which go beyond legal compliance.

Choices:
- Environmental management systems, SA8000, EMAS
- Social accountability standards, ISO14001, SA8000
- Environmental management systems, ISO14001, EMAS
- Social accountability standards, EMAS, SA8000


business_ethics

Question: _______ is the term used to describe the ongoing approval and acceptance of a company's activities by society, especially among local communities and civil societies.

Choices:
- Enlightened self interest
- Social licence to operate
- Community approval
- Supply chain responsibility


business_ethics

Question: In a business to business context, conflicts of interest can arise in two main ways: conflict of _______ and _______ interests, which might arise, for example, when a firm is hired as a supplier of professional services by another firm or conflict of _________ and ________ interests, such as where an individual's interests may conflict with that of their employer.

Choices:
- Professional, Organizational, Personal, Organizational
- Professional, Individual, Personal, Organizational
- Individual, Organizational, Organizational, Professional
- Individual, Professional, Organizational, Personal


business_ethics

Question: A company may become insolvent if it

Choices:
- has negative working capital
- cannot meet its budgeted level of profit
- makes a loss
- cannot pay creditors in full after realisation of its assets


business_ethics

Question: According to Evan and Freeman (1993), the Principle of ________ and the Principle of _______ can be used in a specific situation to determine who constitutes a _______.

Choices:
- Corporate rights, Corporate effect, Stakeholder
- Corporate deniability, Corporate effect, Stakeholder
- Corporate rights, Corporate responsibility, Stakeholder
- Corporate rights, Corporate effect, Shareholder


business_ethics

Question: ______ is the corporate role in governing citizenship rights for the individual

Choices:
- Political Corporate Social Responsibility
- Triple Bottom Line
- Sustainability
- Corporate Citizenship


business_ethics

Question: When negotiating using unethical practices, businesses can risk _______, if the negotiations are part of a longer-term business association, as well as a ___________ and __________, as negotiations can impact company image and stymy progress.

Choices:
- Rigid negotiations, Enhanced reputation, Greater opportunities
- Damaged relationships, Sullied reputation, Lost opportunities
- Rigid negotiations, Sullied Reputation, Lost opportunities
- Damaged relationships, Rigid negotiations, Lost opportunities


business_ethics

Question: The ________ perspective on sustainability resulted from growth models that analysed the carrying capacity of the planet, overall concluding that the finite capacity of the earth and_______, ________ and _______ by current and past generations could reduce quality of life for future generations. This contrasts with the environmental perspective with focuses on the need to maintain and preserve the natural environment.

Choices:
- Economic, Overuse of resources, Overpopulation, Over pollution,
- Economic, Underuse of resources, Underpopulation, Unsustainability
- Environmental, Underuse of resources, Overpopulation, Over pollution
- Environmental, Overuse of resources, Underpopulation, Unsustainability


business_ethics

Question: Businesses engage in social accounting due to demands from _________, in order to identify ________, to improve ___________ and to encourage _________ and ___________

Choices:
- Stakeholders, Risks, Stakeholder management, Accountability, Transparency
- Stakeholders, Accountability, Transparency, Risks, Stakeholder Management
- Stakeholders, Accountability, Risks, Stakeholders, Stakeholder Management
- Stakeholders, Stakeholder Management, Transparency, Risks, Accountability


business_ethics

Question: The state of being unable to make an informed, reasoned decision about a product purchase is known as?

Choices:
- Consumer inclusion
- Consumer competence
- Consumer exclusion
- Consumer vulnerability


business_ethics

Question: _______ such as bitcoin are becoming increasingly mainstream and have a whole host of associated ethical implications, for example, they are______ and more ______. However, they have also been used to engage in _______.

Choices:
- Cryptocurrencies, Expensive, Secure, Financial Crime
- Traditional currency, Cheap, Unsecure, Charitable giving
- Cryptocurrencies, Cheap, Secure, Financial crime
- Traditional currency, Expensive, Unsecure, Charitable giving


business_ethics

Question: They are too irrational and uncodified.

Choices:
- 3,4
- 1,3
- 2,3
- 4,1


business_ethics

Question: ________ is the use of language of to mask or expose the ethical nature of decisions, actions and behaviours.

Choices:
- Ethical splicing
- Moral framing
- Ethical window dressing
- Moral splicing


business_ethics

Question: Better access to certain markets, differentiation of products, and the sale of pollution-control technology are ways in which better environmental performance can:

Choices:
- Increase Revenue
- Increase Costs
- Decrease Revenue
- Decrease Costs


business_ethics

Question: The so-called BRIC countries (Brazil, Russia, India and _______) tend to follow a __________ approach to corporate governance. However, recently this has tended to move towards more _______-based mechanisms.

Choices:
- Canada, Market, Relationship
- China, Market, Relationship
- Canada, Relationship, Market
- China, Relationship, Market


business_ethics

Question: Cultural homogenization.

Choices:
- 1,3,4
- 1,2,3
- 1,2,3,4
- 2,3,4


business_ethics

Question: ______ are the obligations of workers towards their employer, based on individual contracts and wider employment laws.

Choices:
- Employee rights
- Employee rights
- Employer duties
- Employee duties


business_ethics

Question: Which of the following areas is not covered by the principles enshrined in the UN Global Compact?

Choices:
- Human rights
- Labour
- Commercial performance
- Anti-corruption


business_ethics

Question: The enforcement of company privacy is complex as corporations are somewhat __________, as there are few clear barriers to define their limits, it is difficult to _________ due to the number of individuals involved and much corporate activity takes place in ________.

Choices:
- Boundaryless, Control information, Private spaces
- Public spaces, Maintain individual privacy, Private spaces
- Boundaryless, Control information, Public spaces
- Private spaces, Maintain individual privacy, Public spaces


business_ethics

Question: ________ is any business effort to influence government or public policy. It includes activities such as __________, political advertising, financial contributions, ________ action and political ________.

Choices:
- Private regulation, Lobbying, Environmental, Fundraising
- Private regulation, Consumer Marketing, Legal, Fundraising
- Corporate political activity, Lobbying, Legal, Campaigning
- Corporate political activity, Consumer marketing, Environmental, Campaigning


business_ethics

Question: Ethical issues related to marketing communications include the fact that they are _________ and unavoidable, they create ________ needs, reinforce _________ and perpetuate _________ and ______.

Choices:
- Intrusive, Artificial, Consumerism, Insecurity, Social Stereotypes
- Intrusive, Artificial, De-materialism, Security, Happiness
- Intrusive, Real, Consumerism, Insecurity, Happiness
- Intrusive, Real, De-materialism, Security, Social stereotypes


business_ethics

Question: Typical advertising regulatory bodies suggest, for example that adverts must not: encourage _________, cause unnecessary ________ or _____, and must not cause _______ offence.

Choices:
- Unsafe practices, Wants, Fear, Trivial
- Unsafe practices, Distress, Fear, Serious
- Safe practices, Wants, Jealousy, Trivial
- Safe practices, Distress, Jealousy, Serious


business_ethics

Question: According to Mitchell et al (1997) ______, the perceived ability of a stakeholder to influence organisational action, ________ whether the organisation perceives the stakeholder's actions as desirable, proper and appropriate and ________, the immediacy of attention the stakeholder claims require, determine stakeholder ________.

Choices:
- Power, Legitimacy, Salience Urgency
- Legitimacy, Urgency, Salience, Power
- Power, Legitimacy, Urgency, Salience
- Salience, Power, Urgency, Legitimacy


business_ethics

Question: _______ and _______ are both examples of _______ -based theories which are based on basic universal principles of right and wrong.

Choices:
- Ethics of duty, Ethics of rights and justice, Principle
- Utilitarianism, Egoism, Principle
- Ethics of duty, Utilitarianism, Consequentialist
- Egoism, Ethics of rights and justice, Consequentialist


business_ethics

Question: The race to the ______ is when, due to increased ________, countries compete for foreign investment through companies' relocation decisions by weakening their ______ and _____ standards.

Choices:
- Bottom, Globalisation, Social, Environmental
- Top, Globalisation, Political, Environmental
- Bottom, Standardisation, Social, Economic
- Top, Standardisation, Political, Economic


business_ethics

Question: The purposes for which the information is used is in the public's interest.

Choices:
- 1,2
- 1,3
- 2,3
- 1,2,3


business_ethics

Question: The extent to which an individual is able to creatively consider the consequences of, resolutions to, and issues associated with moral decision making is known as _________.

Choices:
- Moral imagination
- Ethical reflexivity
- Moral originality
- Moral reflexivity


business_ethics

Question: Negative advertising, stealing or poaching customers and predatory pricing are all strategies employed by businesses described using the umbrella term ________.

Choices:
- Reasonable competitive behaviour
- Swindles
- Competitive tricks
- Dirty tricks


business_ethics

Question: In order to try and align the interest of shareholders and senior management of a company, _________ are often made available to _______ of a company, to ensure that it is in their interests to increase _______ and dividend performance.

Choices:
- Share options, Senior managers, Share Price
- Share options, All employees, Share Price
- Non-financial remunerations, Senior managers, Employee Satisfaction
- Non-financial remunerations, All employees, Employee Satisfaction


business_ethics

Question: CSO's frequently spend too much time communicating their performance measures and too much time devising them with input from beneficiaries.

Choices:
- 2,3
- 1,3
- 3,4
- 1,2,3,4


business_ethics

Question: A(n) __________ is a ________, __________ framework which goes beyond linear functions, operations and transactions to produce a certain commodity or product

Choices:
- International supply chain, Static, Disconnected
- Global production network, Dynamic, Relational
- International supply chain, Dynamic, Disconnected
- Global production network, Static, Relational


business_ethics

Question: _______ locate morality beyond the sphere of rationality in an emotional 'moral impulse' towards others.

Choices:
- Virtue ethics
- Ethical egoism
- Postmodern ethics
- Ethics of duty


business_ethics

Question: Sustainability can broadly be defined as

Choices:
- The short-term maintenance of systems according to environmental, economic and social considerations
- The long-term maintenance of processes according to environmental, economic and cultural considerations.
- The short-term maintenance of systems according to environmental, political and social considerations.
- The long-term maintenance of systems according to environmental, economic and social considerations.


business_ethics

Question: There are two main issues associated with _____ sizing. _______ is a key issue as due to the information policy of the corporation it can be argued that employees have a right to know if they are being made redundant. _______ is a second issue, particularly the ________ package that employees receive when laid off.

Choices:
- Down, Involvement, Remuneration, Compensation
- Up, Involvement, Autonomy, Compensation
- Down, Autonomy, Remuneration, Benefit
- Up, Independence, Involvement, Benefit


business_ethics

Question: Factors that impact ethical decision making can be broadly broken down into ________ factors, related to the unique characteristics of a person, and _________ factors, which are features of the person's environment or the particular issue.

Choices:
- Tailored, Individual
- Situational, Individual
- Situational, Tailored
- Individual, Situational


business_ethics

Question: _________ are individual beliefs about desirable behaviours and goals that are stable over time and which influence decision making.

Choices:
- Character traits
- Personal values
- Personal attitudes
- Personal traits


business_ethics

Question: The focus on issues, the intended audience extending beyond shareholders and the voluntary nature of ___________ distinguish it from _________.

Choices:
- Financial accounting, Environmental management initiatives
- Financial accounting, Social accounting.
- Social accounting, Financial accounting.
- Annual report publication, Social accounting


business_ethics

Question: ____________ refers to a strategic process involving stakeholder assessment to create long-term relationships with customers, while maintaining, supporting, and enhancing the natural environment.

Choices:
- Eco-strategy
- Green Marketing
- Superfund reauthorization
- Recycle and reprocess management


business_ethics

Question: What does Milton Friedman believe to be the sole responsibility of business?

Choices:
- The only social responsibility of business is to its shareholders
- Managers should act in ways that balance the interest of society and shareholders
- The primary responsibility organizations have is to its employees
- The primary responsibility organizations have is to its stakeholders


business_ethics

Question: The rise in business led, private regulation can be attributed to: encouragement of a _______ approach from industry, _________ and _______ achievement of objectives.

Choices:
- Faster, Cost effectiveness, Slower
- Faster, Heightened costs, Slower
- Proactive, Cost effectiveness, Faster
- Proactive, Heightened costs, Faster


business_ethics

Question: Under ethical ________ objective moral principles can be rationally determined, while ethical under ________ morality is both context dependant and subjective.

Choices:
- Normativity, Relativism
- Absolutism, Relativism
- Relativism, Absolutism
- Absolutism, Normativity


business_ethics

Question: Businesses have _____ within society and have the potential to provide a ____ to society while ____ has the potential to inflict enormous harm on individuals, communities and the environment.

Choices:
- Little power, Small contribution, Business malpractice
- Little power, Major contribution, Corporate social responsibility
- Huge power, Small contribution, Corporate social responsibility
- Huge power, Major contribution, Business malpractice


business_ethics

Question: The Right to _______ has been a long-standing ethical concern for employees which today are addressed in most developed countries through a dense network of occupational health, safety and environmental regulations companies must abide by.

Choices:
- Work-life balance
- Healthy and safe working conditions
- Employee privacy
- Free Speech


business_ethics

Question: The Private Sector Social Enterprise Model.

Choices:
- 1,2,4
- 2,3,4
- 1,2,3,4
- 1,2,3


business_ethics

Question: The degree to which corporate decisions, policies, activities and impacts are acknowledged and made visible to relevant stakeholders is known as ________

Choices:
- Corporate Opaqueness
- Corporate Transparency
- Corporate Openness
- Corporate Visibility


business_ethics

Question: When the true cost an item is deliberately obscured by a company this is known as?

Choices:
- Predatory pricing
- Deceptive pricing
- Price fixing
- Skimming


business_ethics

Question: ________ reasoning is considered by many to be prevalent within society and particularly within businesses, where it is often referred to in the form of a ___________.

Choices:
- Consequentialist, Cost-benefit analysis
- Rationalised, Annual audit
- Consequentialist, Annual audit
- Rationalised, Cost-benefit analysis


business_ethics

Question: _______ is a system of exchange based on guaranteeing producers in developing countries a living wage, decent working conditions and opportunities for community development.

Choices:
- Sustainable sourcing
- Fair trade
- Ethical sourcing
- Supply chain responsibility


business_ethics

Question: How the code is enforced.

Choices:
- 1,2,3
- 1,2,4
- 1,3,4
- 2,3,4


business_ethics

Question: The complexity of the theory.

Choices:
- 1,2,3,4
- 1,3,4
- 1,2,3
- 1,2,4


business_ethics

Question: According Carroll what four categories or aspects can corporate social responsibility be broken down into?

Choices:
- Political, Legal, Ethical and Philanthropic
- Economic, Legal, Ethical and Philanthropic
- Economic, Legal, Cultural and Philanthropic
- Economic, Legal, Ethical and Environmental


business_ethics

Question: A corporation is ________ from its managers, employees, investors and customers. It therefore has _______ succession and also ________.

Choices:
- Indistinguishable, Perpetual, Does not own its own assets
- Independent, Limited, Owns its own assets
- Independent, Perpetual, Owns its own assets
- Indistinguishable, Perpetual, Owns its own assets


business_ethics

Question: The ISO 26000 standard on ________ is emblematic of a number of trends emerging within the shared global governance space. Specifically, these trends concern, more deliberation and ________, greater focus on the _______ rather than outcomes and more _______ rather than specific norms.

Choices:
- Social responsibility, Collaboration, Process, Frameworks
- Social responsibility, Individualism, Process, Legislation
- Environmental responsibility, Individualism, Inputs, Frameworks
- Environmental responsibility, Collaboration, Inputs, Legislation


business_ethics

Question: Managers and directors have a fiduciary responsibility to protect the investment of shareholders.

Choices:
- 1,3,4
- 1,2,3,
- 1,2,4
- 2,3,4


business_ethics

Question: _______ can be a likened to their natural counterparts, comprising of a balanced network of interdependent organisms and their environments thus adding value to sustainability thinking due to the consideration of companies and industries as being bound together, and interdependent due to all kinds of resources and wastes.

Choices:
- Industrial supply loops
- Industrial ecosystems
- Ecological ecosystems
- Corporate ecosystems


business_ethics

Question: ___________, ___________ and __________ are all factors which can impact the moral intensity

Choices:
- Social consensus, Temporal immediacy, Proximity
- Proximity, Social dissensus, Futility of effect
- Proximity, Temporal immediacy, Social dissensus
- Social dissensus, Cultural immediacy, Proximity


business_ethics

Question: What, according to Schnackenberg and Tomlinson (2014), are the three criteria which can be used to assess the quality of corporate transparency?

Choices:
- Breadth, Clarity, Accuracy
- Disclosure, Detail, Accuracy
- Disclosure, Clarity, Accuracy
- Disclosure, Clarity, Efficiency


business_ethics

Question: What are the three differing types of stakeholder theory according to Donaldson and Preston (1995)?

Choices:
- Normative, Descriptive and Economic
- Normative, Moral and Instrumental
- Political, Descriptive and Instrumental
- Normative, Descriptive and Instrumental


business_ethics

Question: Demand reduction.

Choices:
- 1,3,4
- 2,3,4
- 1,2,3
- 1,2,4


business_ethics

Question: Predatory pricing.

Choices:
- 1,2,4
- 1,2,3,4
- 1,2
- 1,4


business_ethics

Question: ________ are a business ethics management tool that have grown over the last few decades. Areas which these typically cover are compliance, corruption and environmental issues. However, they are constantly evolving, with for example, the onus on __________ having grown in recent years.

Choices:
- Annual reports, Company financial performance
- Annual report, Internet - social media and networking
- Codes of ethics, Company financial performance
- Codes of ethics, Internet - social media and networking


business_ethics

Question: What term can be used to describe 'the hypothetical agreement between member of society and those who govern it which establishes the inter-relationships, rights and responsibilities on a fair basis'?

Choices:
- Social Contract
- Duty Ethics
- Consequentialism
- Virtue Ethics


business_ethics

Question: ______ regulation goes further than the ______ that CSOs have with businesses, as it also concerns _______of such processes.

Choices:
- Legal, Interactions, Mechanics
- Civil, Relations, Outcomes
- Political, Interactions, Outcomes
- Environmental, Relations, Mechanics


business_ethics

Question: Replacing supply chains with _______ enhances the importance of product _______as well as a fundamental redesign of every activity a firm engages in that produces _______.

Choices:
- Supply loops, Recapture, Waste
- Supply loops, Redesign, Profit
- Global production networks, Recapture, Waste
- Global production networks, Redesign, Profit


business_ethics

Question: The Theory of _________ posits that 3 three levels of moral reasoning exist which an individual can engage in to assess ethical issues, dependant on their cognitive capacity.

Choices:
- Egoism
- Cognitive moral development
- Power distance
- Uncertainty avoidance


business_ethics

Question: Which of the following would most effectively act as the primary objective of a business organisation?

Choices:
- To make a profit
- To procure resources
- To communicate with shareholders
- To mediate between the organisation and the environment


business_ethics

Question: ______ the workplace involves empowering employees through, for example, 'job enrichment' where employees are given a larger scope for deciding how to organize their work or 'job enlargement' where employees are given a wider range of tasks to do.

Choices:
- Re-invigorating
- Re-flourishing
- Revitalizing
- Rehumanizing


business_ethics

Question: Although the benefit and contribution of civil society in encouraging sustainability, lobbying on important issues and helping the needy are taken for granted in many places, in many other countries, such as _____ and ______ civil society is far less developed than in, for instance, _______.

Choices:
- Russia, China, Britain
- Norway, China, Russia
- Britain, United States, Australia
- Canada, Russia, United States


business_ethics

Question: What are, according to Wood (1991), the three outcomes of CSR?

Choices:
- Social policies, Social programmes and Social impacts
- Social evaluations, Social programmes and Social impacts
- Social policies, Social evidencing and Social impacts
- Social policies, Social programmes and Social analysis


business_ethics

Question: Which of the following is not one the underlying principles of the corporate governance Combined Code of Practice?

Choices:
- Openness
- Integrity
- Availability
- Acceptability


business_ethics

Question: he relationship between shareholdersf ________. Specifically, they have a duty to act for the benefit of the company, as well as a duty of ________ and of _______.

Choices:
- Shareholders, Care and Skill, Diligence
- Stakeholder, Care and Skill, Diligence
- Shareholders, Self-interest, Diligence
- Stakeholders, Care and skill, Self-interest


business_ethics

Question: The extent to which an individual believes they can control their life is determined by their __________.

Choices:
- Moral imagination
- Personal integrity
- Cognitive moral development
- Locus of control


business_ethics

Question: Some of key differences between Islamic finance and conventional finance include - prohibition of charging and paying _______, prohibition on ______ and ______ transactions, prohibition of sinful investment and requirement for all financial products to be backed by __________.

Choices:
- Interest, Certain, Speculative, Intangible assets
- Interest, Uncertain, Assured, Intangible assets
- Interest, Uncertain, Speculative, Tangible assets
- Interest, Certain, Assured, Tangible assets


business_ethics

Question: There are a number of means by which can influence _______. These include _________to decision maker, varying from very direct modes to indirect modes, _________, being either public or private and ________ of communication.

Choices:
- Government, Avenue of approach, Breadth of transmission, Content
- Consumers, Avenue of approach, Height of transmission, Content
- Government, Breath of transmission, Avenue of approach, Content
- Employees, Breadth of transmission, Content, Avenue of approach


business_ethics

Question: The need to head off negative publicity.

Choices:
- 1,3,4
- 2,3,4
- 1,2,3
- 1,2,3,4


business_ethics

Question: Traditionally consumer rights were based on the notion of _______ or _______ where the responsibility lay with consumer to avoid subpar products. However, this has gradually eroded due to increased ________ at a ________, EU and UN level.

Choices:
- Caveat emptor, Company Responsibility, Informal codes, International
- Caveat emptor, Buyer beware, Regulation, National
- Cemptor Eaveat, Buyer beware, Regulation, National
- Cemptor Eaveat, Company Responsibility, Informal Codes, International


business_ethics

Question: A stakeholder orientation includes all of the following activities except:

Choices:
- Generating Data About Stakeholder Groups
- Assessing The Firm's Effects On Stakeholder Groups
- Distributing Stakeholder Information Throughout The Firm
- Minimizing The Influence Of Stakeholder Information On The Firm


business_ethics

Question: _______ working practices refer to working patterns which involve temporal, spatial and task related fluidity.

Choices:
- Dynamic
- Fluid
- Flexible
- Modern


business_ethics

Question: ________, where for example one party possess more resources, unfair distribution of ________, where one party gains more from the relationship, and CSOs being ________, are all limitations and risks of business-CSO collaborations.

Choices:
- Power imbalance, Benefits, Hoodwinked
- Power imbalance, Resources, Co-opted
- Informational asymmetries, Benefits, Hoodwinked
- Informational asymmetries, Resources, Co-opted


business_ethics

Question: ______ is an employee's preferred ratio between work-related and non-work-related activities which, due to intensification of work and technological shifts, has become a hotly contested issue in recent years.

Choices:
- Presenteeism
- Absenteeism
- Work-play balance
- Work-life balance


business_ethics

Question: Which of the following statements is correct?

Choices:
- Business ethics is not a real concept as the rules and ethics of everyday life don't apply to the world of business.
- Business Ethics is the study of business situations, activities and decisions where issues of right and wrong are addressed.
- Business ethics cannot be defined as a real concept as it is an oxymoronic term.
- Business ethics is concerned with the study of assessing the activities of a business based on their profitability.


business_ethics

Question: _______ theory can be described as a code of conduct to which all rational beings should adhere. This contrasts with ________ morality which is the code of conduct adopted by a particular group or society.

Choices:
- Descriptive, Normative
- Normative, Instrumental
- Normative, Descriptive
- Ethical, Descriptive


business_ethics

Question: _________ such as the ________ in the United States is a key factor in driving ethical business practices.

Choices:
- Legislation, Sarbanes-Oxley Act
- Internal company policy, Unethical corporate practices act
- Internal company policy, Sarbanes-Oxley Act
- Legislation, Unethical corporate practices act


business_ethics

Question: The UK Public Services (Social Value) Act 2013 requires those procuring ______ to consider how they can secure wider _____, _____and _____ benefits.

Choices:
- Private services, social, economic and environmental
- Public services, social, cultural and environmental
- Private services, cultural, economic and environmental
- Public services, social, economic and environmental


business_ethics

Question: What is the enlightened self-interest model of CSR?

Choices:
- That it is in an organization's own best interest to put itself first rather than its ethics
- That it is in an organization's best interest to consider what a shareholder would want
- That it is in an organization's own best interest to act in an ethical way
- That it is in an organization's own best interest to follow the legislation and abide by the law


business_ethics

Question: The relationship between ethics and the law can be described asâ¦

Choices:
- Incredibly close, in fact, in all instances what is ethical is also what is legal and vice versa.
- Not close, ethics and the law share a small amount of overlap, but fundamentally address differing questions and themes.
- Close, as there is considerable overlap between ethics and law, but the two are not equivalent.
- Not at all close, ethics and the law are virtually incompatible.


business_ethics

Question: The ___________, otherwise known as _________ was launched in 1997 and is a global workplace standard that covers key labour rights such as working hours, forced labour and discrimination, with compliance being certified by independent auditors.

Choices:
- Social accountability standard, SA 8000
- Social accountability standard, SA 9000
- Sarbanes-Oxley Act, SA 8000
- Sarbanes-Oxley Act, SA 9000


business_ethics

Question: Healthy eating, particularly relating to sugar and salt consumption, food and packaging waste and supply chain CO2 emissions are all business ethics issues facing the ________.

Choices:
- Supermarket industry
- Chemicals industry
- Construction industry
- Information and mobile technology industry


business_ethics

Question: Although corporate profit maximization is not directly prescribed by major normative theories to which normative theory is it most similar?

Choices:
- hedonistic utilitarianism
- preference utilitarianism
- The Categorical Imperative
- ethics of care


business_ethics

Question: _______ economy is the term used to describe individuals being hired for a specific task rather than on a long-term basis. While this results in _________ which is beneficial for businesses, issues for those employed in such a manner relate to increased ________, uncertainty and a lack of _______.

Choices:
- Gig, Flexibility, Risk, Social welfare structures
- Sharing, Risk, Flexibility, Autonomy
- Gig, Risk, Flexibility, Autonomy
- Sharing, Flexibility, Risk, Social welfare structures


business_ethics

Question: Pick the correct description of the following term: Utilitarianism isâ¦

Choices:
- A theory which states that an action is morally incorrect if it promotes the greatest good for the greatest number
- A theory which states that an action is morally right if it promotes the greatest good for the decision maker
- A theory which states that an action is morally right if it promotes the greatest good for the smallest number
- A theory which states that an action is morally right if it promotes the greatest good for the greatest number


business_ethics

Question: _____ is a key driving force shaping the current and future state of business ethics, in particular regarding _____, ______ and _____ related issues.

Choices:
- Globalisation, Cultural, Legal, Accountability
- Nationalisation, Cultural, Environmental, Accountability
- Privatisation, Cultural, Legal, Accountability
- Globalisation, Technological, Financial, Accountability


business_ethics

Question: Which of the three following organisational characteristics of small businesses tend to characterise their engagement with business related issues?

Choices:
- Size and complexity, owner and family member influence on the organisation, shareholder and stakeholder power
- Lack of organisational resources, size and complexity, owner and family member influence
- Informal relationships, owner and family member influence on the organisation, lack of organisational resources
- Bureaucratic and formal organisational structure, lack of organisational resources, conflicts of interest


business_ethics

Question: _______, where actors are convinced that their actions harms nobody, _______ where actors argue that their norm violation is an attempt to realize higher-order values and ________ , where actors argue they are owed something, are all strategies for justifying or denying unethical behaviour.

Choices:
- Appeal to higher loyalties, Denial of injury, Metaphor of the ledger
- Appeal to higher loyalties, Metaphor of the ledger, Denial of injury
- Denial of injury, Appeal to higher loyalties, Metaphor of the ledger
- Denial of injury, Metaphor of the ledger, Appeal to higher loyalties,


clinical_knowledge

Question: When assessing a patient's breathing:

Choices:
- always remove dentures.
- look for chest movements and use a mirror to check for exhaled air.
- look for chest movements, listen for breath sounds, and feel for exhaled air on your cheek.
- assess for 30 seconds.


clinical_knowledge

Question: If a patient is cyanosed, what might their oxygen saturation level be?

Choices:
- 98% or above.
- 94% or above.
- 80% or below.
- 85% or above.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Women's world record performances have improved rapidly in recent years mainly because:

Choices:
- women have evolved a greater muscle mass.
- women can now run faster than men.
- women have started training at an earlier age.
- more women are now engaged in sport.


clinical_knowledge

Question: The rate limiting enzyme of glycolysis is:

Choices:
- phosphorylase.
- hexokinase.
- pyruvate dehydrogenase.
- phosphofructokinase.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of these combinations of clinical features is most suggestive of mixed mitral valve disease with a predominance of mitral regurgitation?

Choices:
- Displaced apex beat; soft first heart sound; pan-systolic murmur; short mid-diastolic murmur
- Irregularly, irregular pulse; displaced apex beat; ejection systolic murmur; short mid-diastolic murmur
- Displaced apex beat; normal first heart sound; pan-systolic murmur; long mid-diastolic murmur
- Tapping apex beat; loud first heart sound; pan-systolic murmur; long mid-diastolic murmur


clinical_knowledge

Question: The low intake of carbohydrate in the diet:

Choices:
- does not influence exercise performance in events lasting less than 10 minutes.
- affects the resting muscle pH.
- may impair high intensity exercise performance.
- results in greater reliance on muscle glycogen during exercise.


clinical_knowledge

Question: The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex:

Choices:
- is located in the sarcoplasm.
- catalyses the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA.
- catalyses the conversion of pyruvate to lactate.
- catalyses the conversion of lactate to pyruvate.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Wound drainage is described as serous if:

Choices:
- it contains red blood cells.
- it is thick and yellow or green.
- it contains microorganisms.
- it is clear or slightly yellow.


clinical_knowledge

Question: The carpal bones are the small bones of the wrist - name them.

Choices:
- Scaphoid, lunate, triquetral, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate.
- Scaphoid, lunar, triquetrium, pisiform, radius, ulna, capitates.
- Scaphoid, proximal phalynx, humerus, hamate, capitate.
- Scaphoid, radius, ulna, cunniform, trapezius.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Wound drainage should be assessed for volume and consistency:

Choices:
- each time post-operative observations are undertaken.
- daily.
- every hour.
- only when the wound dressing is changed.


clinical_knowledge

Question: The rate of blood lactate accumulation is determined by:

Choices:
- the rate of muscle lactate production and the rate of muscle lactate efflux.
- the rate of anaerobic glycolysis.
- the rate of muscle glucose uptake.
- the difference between the rate of lactate appearance and the rate of lactate clearance.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following is true about an abdominal mass?

Choices:
- A pulsatile mass is always due to an aortic aneurysm
- An enlarged kidney is dull to percussion
- A large mass arising out of the pelvis which disappears following urethral catheterization is caused by an ovarian cyst
- An indentible mass is caused by faecal loading of the colon


clinical_knowledge

Question: Prosthetic groups are:

Choices:
- required by all enzymes in the cell.
- loosely bound to enzymes via hydrogen bonds.
- sites on the enzyme molecule that permit allosteric modification of enzyme activity.
- tightly bound to enzymes and are required for their activity.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following is true of Systemic Sclerosis?

Choices:
- It affects males more than females
- If telangiectasia are seen this clinches the diagnosis
- Arachnodactyly is a feature of the disease
- Patients have a beaked shaped nose and waxy skin


clinical_knowledge

Question: The enzymes of glycolysis are located in the:

Choices:
- mitochondrion.
- nucleus.
- cytoplasm.
- lysosomes.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following is true about the knee joint?

Choices:
- The knee is a ball and socket joint
- A baker's cyst can sometimes be found anterior to the knee
- The patellar tap is used to demonstrate an effusion
- 'knock knee' deformity is due to bilateral genu varum


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following is true of the assessment of power in the arms?

Choices:
- Grade 3/5 (MRC scale) represents movement of the arm only when gravity is eliminated
- Flexion at the elbow is produced by the triceps muscle
- The root value of shoulder abduction is C5
- Grade 1/5 power represents no movement or muscle contraction


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following factors does not influence success in sport?

Choices:
- Ability to tolerate heavy training without succumbing to illness or injury.
- Tactics.
- The diet.
- Ingestion of carnitine during exercise.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Kinase reactions:

Choices:
- inhibit ATP breakdown.
- involve the addition or removal of a phosphate group.
- involve the addition or removal of a ketone group.
- involve the addition or removal of an amino acid to a polypeptide chain.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following is true about possible rectal findings?

Choices:
- The finding of a palpable median groove in the prostate is an adverse finding
- Impacted faeces can sometimes be mistaken for a rectal tumour
- A thrombosed haemorrhoid is painless
- Peri-anal warts can only be demonstrated on proctoscopy


clinical_knowledge

Question: Muscle lactate production increases when:

Choices:
- oxygen is readily available.
- pyruvate cannot be formed from glucose breakdown.
- the pH of the muscle falls.
- glycolysis is activated at the onset of exercise.


clinical_knowledge

Question: The synthesis of glucose from lactate, glycerol, or amino acids is called:

Choices:
- glycogenolysis.
- glycolysis.
- lipolysis.
- gluconeogenesis.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following statements is true about informal carers (as of 2020)?

Choices:
- 50% of over 65s are providing informal care.
- One in six over 65s is providing some form of informal care.
- Informal carers should not be included in discharge planning.
- The majority of informal carers are fit and active.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Sodium bicarbonate ingestion improves middle distance running performance by:

Choices:
- elevating the pH and buffering capacity of the extracellular fluid allowing a faster efflux of hydrogen ions from muscle.
- reducing the pH and buffering capacity of the extracellular fluid allowing a faster efflux of hydrogen ions from muscle.
- elevating the pH and buffering capacity of the extracellular fluid allowing a faster influx of hydrogen ions into muscle.
- elevating the pre-exercise muscle pH.


clinical_knowledge

Question: When teaching a patient inhaler technique, how will you ensure that a large proportion of the drug reaches the lower airways?

Choices:
- Ask them to take lots of small, quick breaths in before using the inhaler.
- Ask them to breathe normally when using the inhaler.
- Ask them to perform the procedure as quickly as they can.
- Ask them to hold their breath at the end of the inspiration on using the inhaler.


clinical_knowledge

Question: How long can a cannula remain in situ?

Choices:
- 24 hours.
- 36 hours.
- 48 hours.
- 96 hours.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Lactate and hydrogen ions leave the muscle:

Choices:
- via a cotransport mechanism with carnosine.
- via an active transport mechanism.
- via a protein transporter molecule.
- by simple diffusion.


clinical_knowledge

Question: The optimum position for performing CPR is to position the patient:

Choices:
- in a semi-recumbent posture.
- tilted to the left to keep the heart perfused.
- flat on a firm surface.
- on the floor with the legs raised.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following statements is false?

Choices:
- Phosphofructokinase is the rate limiting enzyme in glycolysis.
- Phosphorylase activity is higher in Type II fibres than in Type I fibres.
- Endurance training increases the amount of TCA cycle enzymes in muscle.
- Oxygen is consumed in the TCA cycle.


clinical_knowledge

Question: The creatine kinase reaction is:

Choices:
- irreversible.
- slow compared with glycolysis.
- not activated until all the ATP has been used up.
- inhibited by low pH in the muscle.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following is true regarding reflexes?

Choices:
- A positive babinski reflex is the same as a normal flexor response in the assessment of the plantar reflex
- An extensor plantar response indicates a lower motor neurone lesion
- The root value of the ankle reflex is S1
- The root value of the knee reflex is L1, L2


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following is true of Graves Disease of the thyroid?

Choices:
- It is a cause of ophthalmoplegia
- It causes a large multi-nodular goitre
- It is commoner in males than females
- In the past, Grave's disease sometimes caused 'Derbyshire Neck'


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following is not associated with an increase in the work of breathing?

Choices:
- Rise in respiratory rate.
- Noisy breathing.
- Increase in the use of accessory muscles.
- A respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Approximately how many kJ of energy are expended if an athlete's steady-rate oxygen uptake averages 3.0 l/min for 5 minutes of exercise?

Choices:
- 60 kJ
- 150 kJ
- 300 kJ
- 500 kJ


clinical_knowledge

Question: An action potential arriving at the motor endplate causes release of:

Choices:
- acetylcholine which traverses the neuromuscular junction.
- sodium ions which binds to sodium receptors on the muscle membrane.
- calcium ions which initiate an action potential along the muscle fibre.
- noradrenaline which increases muscle metabolic activity.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of these options is not recognized as a cause of chronic cough?

Choices:
- Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease
- Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
- Long-term smoking
- Sodium valproate


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of these features suggest that a crackling sound is more likely due to a pleural friction rub than crackles?

Choices:
- More prominent in expiration
- Alters with coughing
- No pain over the area
- Clubbing


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following is not a true statement?

Choices:
- Muscle glycogen is broken down enzymatically to glucose-1-phosphate
- Elite endurance runners have a high proportion of Type I fibres in their leg muscles
- Liver glycogen is important in the maintenance of the blood glucose concentration
- Insulin promotes glucose uptake by all tissues in the body


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which one of the following manoeuvres is not a central painful stimulus?

Choices:
- Supra-orbital ridge pressure.
- Pressure on the little finger pulp.
- Trapezius squeeze.
- Sternal rub.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following can act as an intracellular buffer to limit pH changes when the rate of glycolysis is high?

Choices:
- Glutamine
- Glucose
- Carnosine
- Amylase


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following is true in peripheral neuropathy?

Choices:
- Sensory loss is demonstrated in a stocking distribution
- The tone is increased bilaterally in the legs
- Reflexes are very brisk with reinforcement
- Weakness is more marked proximally than distally


clinical_knowledge

Question: Name three of the five main uses of the hand.

Choices:
- Touch, feel, stroke.
- Grip, percussion, sensory.
- Tap, slap, clap.
- Touch, pinch, grasp.


clinical_knowledge

Question: A patient has been on the operating table for four hours. How long may it take for any pressure damage to be visible?

Choices:
- 12 hours.
- 72 hours.
- 24 hours.
- 5 days.


clinical_knowledge

Question: A 14-16 gauge needle is most likely to be used for:

Choices:
- children.
- elderly patients.
- inserting in the back of the hand.
- trauma or burns patients.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following processes is not used to modify protein structure after translation has occurred?

Choices:
- Lipidation.
- Attachment of more amino acids via peptide bonds.
- Glycosylation.
- Phosphorylation.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following is true about rectal bleeding?

Choices:
- A painful digital examination suggests an anal fissure
- Bright red blood on the finger usually signifies a caecal lesion
- Proctoscopy is of no value in the assessment of rectal bleeding
- Rectal cancer is the commonest cause of rectal bleeding


clinical_knowledge

Question: A change in blood pressure is detected by the:

Choices:
- baroreceptors.
- chemoreceptors.
- vasomotor centre.
- cardiovascular centre.


clinical_knowledge

Question: An allele that is masked is referred to as:

Choices:
- recessive.
- redundant.
- repressed.
- reclusive.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following is true about the assessment of arm reflexes?

Choices:
- The root value of the biceps reflex is C5, C6
- If no reflex is elicited when you tap a tendon it is documented as absent
- The triceps tendon is struck in the antecubital fossa
- Brisk finger jerks confirm a lower motor neurone lesion


clinical_knowledge

Question: The cardiac cycle consists of the phases:

Choices:
- systole, diastole, and rest.
- contraction, relaxation, and rest.
- diastole and systole.
- diastole, systole, and contraction.


clinical_knowledge

Question: After what period of time does maximal dynamic exercise become predominantly aerobic?

Choices:
- 10 seconds
- 30 seconds
- 1 minute
- 4 minutes


clinical_knowledge

Question: What is the purpose of the cuff on a tracheostomy tube?

Choices:
- To create an air seal within the trachea and reduce the risk of aspirating saliva or gastric contents.
- To reduce local oedema.
- To assist with swallowing.
- To allow the patient to talk.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Where should a stoma be sited?

Choices:
- The rectus sheath abdominus.
- Next to the umbilicus.
- Within an abdominal crease.
- In close proximity to the incision site.


clinical_knowledge

Question: How much toothpaste is recommended for cleaning teeth?

Choices:
- A smear.
- A pea-sized amount.
- The length of the toothbrush.
- Half an inch.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following is present in saliva and has an antibacterial action?

Choices:
- Lysozyme.
- Amylase.
- Sodium chloride.
- Mucus.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Oedema is the presence of:

Choices:
- excessive intravascular fluid.
- excessive extravascular fluid.
- excessive intracranial fluid.
- excessive necrotic cells.


clinical_knowledge

Question: The most rapid method to resynthesize ATP during exercise is through:

Choices:
- glycolysis.
- phosphocreatine breakdown.
- tricarboxylic acid cycle (Krebs' cycle).
- glycogenolysis.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Blood clots are responsible for repeatedly blocking a catheter. What should you do?

Choices:
- Call for help.
- Inform medical staff.
- Inform the patient.
- Remove the catheter and recatheterize.


clinical_knowledge

Question: The pulse can be palpated:

Choices:
- every time the atria contracts.
- when a vein is close to the surface of the skin.
- every time the left ventricle contracts.
- when an artery is close to the surface of the skin.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Why might a patient need a tracheostomy?

Choices:
- To repair vocal cords after paralysis.
- To aid swallowing.
- As an aid to weaning patients from a ventilator.
- Prior to neck surgery.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following is NOT a sign of phlebitis?

Choices:
- Swelling.
- Redness.
- Exudate.
- Cool to the touch.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following is true about Addisons Disease?

Choices:
- It is due to a deficiency of prolactin hormone
- Leads to generalized pigmentation
- It is a recognized cause of hypertension
- Diabetes is a complication


clinical_knowledge

Question: In games like soccer the blood lactate concentration:

Choices:
- rarely increases above 3 mM.
- is usually lower at the end of the game than at the end of the first half.
- is usually higher at the end of the game than at the end of the first half.
- increases throughout the course of the game as the players become more fatigued.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following is true about Cushing's Syndrome?

Choices:
- It is due to a deficiency of cortisol hormone
- Enlarged extremities are commonly seen
- Osteoporosis is not a feature
- A moon face and a buffalo hump are characteristic of the disease


clinical_knowledge

Question: In hypovolaemic shock, what percentage of blood can be lost before it is reflected in changes in heart rate and blood pressure?

Choices:
- 5%
- 10%
- 20%
- 30%


clinical_knowledge

Question: What commonly causes skin excoriation?

Choices:
- A well-fitting pouch.
- Changing the pouch every day.
- Leakage of effluent onto peristomal skin.
- The use of unscented soap to cleanse the skin.


clinical_knowledge

Question: How many different types of microorganisms may colonize the mouth?

Choices:
- 35
- 100
- 350
- 500


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following best describes nociceptive pain?

Choices:
- Pain resulting from actual or potential tissue damage, which causes the release of chemical mediators that stimulate nerve fibres to initiate pain signals to the brain.
- Pain resulting from pressure upon a nerve or group of nerves.
- A disorder of a specific nerve or group of nerves resulting in the release of abnormal pain signals.
- Pain resulting from a disorder of the central nervous system, i.e. following a cerebral vascular accident.


clinical_knowledge

Question: The sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells acts as a:

Choices:
- store of digestive enzymes.
- store of sodium ions.
- store of lipid.
- store of calcium ions.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of these features suggest that a pulsation in the neck is arterial?

Choices:
- A waggling earlobe
- Positive for hepatojugular reflux
- No variation with posture
- Pressure in the root of the neck reduces the impulse


clinical_knowledge

Question: One of the most common reasons for stoma formation is:

Choices:
- irritable bowel syndrome.
- haemorrhoids.
- carcinoma.
- bladder instability.


clinical_knowledge

Question: The Î²-oxidation of a molecule of palmitic acid, CH3(CH2)14CO2H:

Choices:
- yields 8 molecules of acetyl-CoA and some ATP and water.
- yields 16 molecules of acetyl-CoA only.
- yields carbon dioxide and water only.
- does not involve oxygen.


clinical_knowledge

Question: When you are taking a musculoskeletal history which of the following is true?

Choices:
- Drugs may be implicated in the causation of gout
- A history of diarrhoea is not relevant
- Difficulty rising from a chair is diagnostic of polymyalgic rheumatica
- Joint stiffness of 5 minutes duration suggests an arthropathy


clinical_knowledge

Question: The term gene doping refers to:

Choices:
- the use of drugs to modify gene transcription.
- the use of genetic manipulation techniques to enhance performance in sport.
- the activation or inhibition of genes to mask drug taking by athletes.
- the use of drugs to modify the myostatin gene.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Removal of adhesive strips:

Choices:
- can be carried out by the patient.
- should be undertaken under aseptic conditions.
- is a specialist skill.
- should not be undertaken until at least seven days after application.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Measuring the blood pressure in an arm that is above the level of the heart will:

Choices:
- accurately estimate the blood pressure.
- overestimate the blood pressure.
- cause an auscultatory gap.
- underestimate the blood pressure.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Peak flow meters record:

Choices:
- the lowest rate of air expelled from the lungs through an open mouth.
- forced expiratory volume.
- forced vital capacity.
- the highest rate of air expelled from the lungs through an open mouth.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following is true of calcium metabolism?

Choices:
- Calcitonin causes a rise in plasma calcium
- Primary hyperparathyroidism is usually asymptomatic
- Vitamin D is secreted by the parathyroid glands
- Oliguria is a symptom of hypercalcaemia


clinical_knowledge

Question: Eccrine and apocrine glands are both types of:

Choices:
- sweat glands.
- salivary glands.
- chemoreceptors.
- tear ducts.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following is true in a sensory assessment of the arm?

Choices:
- It is acceptable to test pain with a venepuncture needle
- Proprioception is appreciated via the same tracts as light touch
- It is best to test vibration sense with a 256 Hz tuning fork
- Impulses for pain travel principally up the dorsal columns


clinical_knowledge

Question: A fundamental cause of fatigue in high intensity exercise is:

Choices:
- a fall in the cell concentration of ADP.
- inhibition of ATP production.
- failure of the ATP supply to match the demand.
- lack of skill.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following would not be done before catheterizing?

Choices:
- Gain patient consent.
- Patient to be washed.
- Expiry dates to be checked.
- Ring patient's next of kin.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Hydrogen ions are formed when:

Choices:
- glycogen becomes depleted.
- phosphocreatine breakdown occurs.
- pyruvate is converted to lactate.
- glycolysis is being used as a major means of resynthesising ATP.


clinical_knowledge

Question: What size of catheter bag may be used at night?

Choices:
- 350ml.
- 500ml.
- 1L.
- 2L.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Prior to undergoing a painful procedure, a patient should be informed about what to expect and how their pain will be controlled, as this is associated with:

Choices:
- a reduction in anxiety and perceived pain intensity.
- an increased use of analgesia.
- a decrease in the frequency of pain-related problems such as nausea and vomiting.
- an increased urine output.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Why should careful consideration be given to providing people aged over 65 with information sources that are internet based?

Choices:
- They may have difficulty reading the screen.
- Less than 30% of people over 65 years have access to the internet.
- The internet is aimed at younger people.
- They may not be able to type.


clinical_knowledge

Question: The energy released from the breakdown of the high-energy phosphates, ATP and phosphocreatine, can sustain maximal exertion exercise for about:

Choices:
- 1-2 seconds.
- 5-10 seconds.
- 30-40 seconds.
- 50-60 seconds.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following is true of haematemesis?

Choices:
- A low blood pressure (<90mmHg systolic) and a tachycardia (>100/min) are worrying features
- A pulse rate of 80/min in a patient taking Bisoprolol is reassuring
- Abdominal pain is always present
- An alcohol history is not essential


clinical_knowledge

Question: What is meant by the term 'passive movements'?

Choices:
- Movement with resistance, stretching at end of range.
- Movement without resistance, stretching at end of range.
- Movement with resistance, stopping at end of range.
- Movement without resistance, stopping at end of range.


clinical_knowledge

Question: In general, the higher the intensity of exercise, the greater the proportional contribution of:

Choices:
- aerobic energy production.
- anaerobic energy production.
- the TCA cycle (Krebs' cycle) to the production of ATP.
- the electron transfer chain to the production of ATP.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following is true about an intention tremor?

Choices:
- It is worse at rest
- It is caused by Parkinson's Disease
- It is indicative of a cerebellar lesion
- Dyscalculia is a common association


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following is true about the carpal tunnel syndrome?

Choices:
- It can be caused by rheumatoid arthritis
- It is caused by compression of the ulna nerve
- It causes pain and tingling in the medial three and half digits
- Paraesthesia is worse during the day


clinical_knowledge

Question: Most of the free fatty acids are transported in the blood:

Choices:
- inside the red blood cells.
- as lipoproteins.
- combined with glucose.
- bound to albumin.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Codons are composed of:

Choices:
- triplet sequences of nucleotide bases in mRNA or DNA .
- quadruplet sequences of nucleotide bases in mRNA or DNA.
- triplet sequences of amino acids in polypeptide chains.
- triplet sequences of deoxyribose sugars in DNA.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following is true of a lower motor neurone lesion in the arm?

Choices:
- It leads to increased tone in the arm (hypertonia)
- Fasciculations are never seen
- The reflexes are brisk
- An ulna nerve palsy is an example of a lower motor neurone lesion


clinical_knowledge

Question: Phophocreatine resynthesis during recovery from exercise is inhibited by:

Choices:
- an excess of creatine.
- hyperventilation.
- an excess of oxygen.
- a lack of oxygen.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Why should a patient stand or sit as upright as possible when recording a peak flow rate?

Choices:
- To ensure best lung expansion and accuracy and consistency of readings.
- This is the most comfortable position to perform any breathing test.
- The counter on the meter will not move if the patient is lying down.
- To ensure that their technique can be observed easily.


clinical_knowledge

Question: What is a tracheostomy?

Choices:
- An opening in the anterior wall of the trachea above the cricoid cartilage.
- An opening in the anterior wall of the trachea below the cricoid cartilage.
- An opening in the anterior chest wall.
- An opening in the posterior wall of the trachea below the cricoid cartilage.


clinical_knowledge

Question: The conversion of one molecule of glucose to two molecules of pyruvate results in the net formation of:

Choices:
- six molecules of water.
- two molecules of ATP.
- three molecules of ATP.
- thirty-eight molecules of ATP.


clinical_knowledge

Question: Which of the following best describes the effects of morphine?

Choices:
- Reduces pain intensity and increases alertness.
- Reduces pain intensity but also causes sedation.
- Reduces pain intensity but also causes diarrhoea.
- Reduces pain intensity but also causes insomnia.


college_chemistry

Question: The number of allowed energy levels for the 55Mn nuclide are:

Choices:
- 3
- 5
- 8
- 4


college_chemistry

Question: The X-band (9.5 GHz) EPR spectrum of a matrix isolated Na atom reveals four hyperfine lines with resonant field positions of 3074 G, 3174 G, 3274 G and 3374 G. Calculate the g value of the atom.

Choices:
- g = 2.002
- g = 1.950
- g = 2.250
- g = 2.005


college_chemistry

Question: Which of the following is a primary standard for use in standardizing bases?

Choices:
- Ammonium hydroxide
- Sulfuric acid
- Acetic acid
- Potassium hydrogen phthalate


college_chemistry

Question: A substance that is NOT generally considered to be a toxic pollutant in water is

Choices:
- carbonic acid
- a halogenated hydrocarbon
- lead
- mercury


college_chemistry

Question: Calculate the Larmor frequency for a proton in a magnetic field of 1 T.

Choices:
- 23.56 GHz
- 42.58 MHz
- 74.34 kHz
- 13.93 MHz


college_chemistry

Question: Exact solutions of the SchrÃ¶dinger equation CANNOT be obtained for a

Choices:
- simple harmonic oscillator
- particle in a one-dimensional box
- rigid rotor
- helium atom


college_chemistry

Question: Which of the following statements is not a reason why tetramethylsilane is used as a 1H chemical shift reference.

Choices:
- Its 1H spectrum is a singlet.
- Its protons are quite strongly shielded.
- It dissolves in most organic solvents.
- Most organic compounds do not contain silicon atoms.


college_chemistry

Question: Calculate the spin angular momentum of 43Ca. [I = 7â2]

Choices:
- 2.166 x 10^-34 J s
- 3.691 x 10^-34 J s
- 4.185 x 10^-34 J s
- 5.493 x 10^-34 J s


college_chemistry

Question: Considering 0.1 M aqueous solutions of each of the following, which solution has the lowest pH?

Choices:
- Na2CO3
- Na3PO4
- Na2S
- NaCl


college_chemistry

Question: Redox enzyme catalysis involves the cyclic oxidation and reduction of metal ions that have at least two stable positive oxidation states. Which of the following groups of metals could be found at the active site of redox enzymes?

Choices:
- Cu, Fe, Co
- Zn, Ca, Ga
- Sr, Ga, Mg
- Na, Ba, Al


college_chemistry

Question: 23Na has an NMR frequency of 198.52 MHz in a 750 MHz NMR spectrometer. What is its magnetogyric ratio?

Choices:
- 101.1 x 10^7 T-1 s-1
- 26.75 x 10^7 T-1 s-1
- 7.081 x 10^7 T-1 s-1
- 0.9377 x 10^7 T-1 s-1


college_chemistry

Question: The 99Ru chemical shift of [Ru(H2O)6]2+ is 16,050 ppm relative to [Ru(CN)6]2- at 0 ppm. The electronic excitation energies of [Ru(H2O)6]2+, [Ru(CN)6]2- and [Ru(NH3)6]2+ are 18,900, 40,000 and 25,600 cm-1 respectively. Assuming that the chemical shift differences are dominated by paramagnetic currents, determine the chemical shift of [Ru(NH3)6]2+.

Choices:
- 7,530 ppm
- 8,090 ppm
- 11,070 ppm
- 14,840 ppm


college_chemistry

Question: A single line is seen in the 31P spectrum of a solution of sodium phosphate. The 31P chemical shifts of H2PO4â¾ and HPO42â are 3.42 ppm and 5.82 ppm respectively. What is the chemical shift when the pH of the solution equals the pKa of H2PO4â¾?

Choices:
- 3.41 ppm
- 3.98 ppm
- 4.33 ppm
- 4.62 ppm


college_chemistry

Question: What is the maximum value of the z-component of the spin angular momentum of 43Ca? [I = 7â2]

Choices:
- 3.691 x 10^-34 J s
- 4.185 x 10^-34 J s
- 5.493 x 10^-34 J s
- 8.370 x 10^-34 J s


college_chemistry

Question: The rotational correlation time of a spherical object of radius r immersed in a liquid with viscosity Î· is given by the Stokes equation: Ïc = 4ÏÎ·r3/3kBT. A small molecule with relative molecular mass Mr = 100 in water at 298 K has Ïc = 50 ps. Assuming that Mr is proportional to the molecular volume, estimate Ïc for a small protein with Mr = 8400.

Choices:
- 420 ns
- 42 ns
- 4.2 ns
- 420 ps


college_chemistry

Question: Which of the following statements most accurately explains why the 1H spectrum of 12CHCl3 is a singlet?

Choices:
- Both 35Cl and 37Cl have I = 0.
- The hydrogen atom undergoes rapid intermolecular exchange.
- The molecule is not rigid.
- Both 35Cl and 37Cl have electric quadrupole moments.


college_chemistry

Question: The rate, r, of a zero-order chemical reaction A â B can be expressed as which of the following?

Choices:
- r = k ln[A]
- r = k [A]^2
- r = k [A]
- r = k


college_chemistry

Question: Calculate the equilibrium polarization of 13C nuclei in a 20.0 T magnetic field at 300 K.

Choices:
- 10.8 x 10^-5
- 4.11 x 10^-5
- 3.43 x 10^-5
- 1.71 x 10^-5


college_chemistry

Question: The 13C spectrum of which isomer of C6H14 has lines with five distinct chemical shifts?

Choices:
- hexane
- 2-methylpentane
- 3-methylpentane
- 2,3-dimethylbutane


college_chemistry

Question: The 1H Larmor frequency of benzene exceeds that of trifluoroacetic acid by 1.656 kHz on a 400 MHz spectrometer. The 1H chemical shift of benzene is 7.16 ppm. What is the chemical shift of trifluoroacetic acid?

Choices:
- 3.02 ppm
- 5.03 ppm
- 10.56 ppm
- 11.30 ppm


college_chemistry

Question: Predict the hyperfine value for the EPR spectrum of fully deuteriated benzene radical anion C6D6â¢-.

Choices:
- 0.375 mT
- 3.75 G
- 2.35 mT
- 0.58 G


college_chemistry

Question: Calculate the magnetic field responsible for the polarization of 2.5 x 10^-6 for 13C at 298 K.

Choices:
- 0.5 T
- 1.2 T
- 2.9 T
- 100 T


college_chemistry

Question: The 1H spectrum of a mixture of dimethylsulphoxide (DMSO) and acetonitrile (AN) contains lines with relative intensities Î± and 3Î±, respectively. What is the ratio of the two concentrations, [DMSO]:[AN]?

Choices:
- 1:1
- 1:3
- 1:6
- 2:3


college_chemistry

Question: Which of the following compounds has a 1H resonance approximately 1.55 kHz away from TMS on a spectrometer with a 12.0 T magnet?

Choices:
- CH3F
- CH3Cl
- CH3Br
- CH3I


college_chemistry

Question: What is the NMR frequency of 31P in a 20.0 T magnetic field?

Choices:
- 54.91 MHz
- 239.2 MHz
- 345.0 MHz
- 2167 MHz


college_chemistry

Question: A molecule has a rotational correlation time of 1 ns. At what magnetic field would protons in this molecule have the fastest spin-lattice relaxation? [Use eqns 5.3 and 5.4.]

Choices:
- 3.74 T
- 5.19 T
- 6.08 T
- 9.49 T


college_chemistry

Question: The 13C chemical shifts of benzene and chloroform are 128.4 ppm and 77.2 ppm respectively. What is the difference in the 13C NMR frequencies of the two compounds on a 600 MHz spectrometer?

Choices:
- 7.73 kHz
- 30.7 kHz
- 91.6 kHz
- 122 kHz


college_chemistry

Question: Which nuclide has an NMR frequency of 115.5 MHz in a 20.0 T magnetic field?

Choices:
- 17O
- 19F
- 29Si
- 31P


college_chemistry

Question: Of the following atoms, which has the lowest electron affinity?

Choices:
- F
- Si
- O
- Ca


college_chemistry

Question: During a delay, spins with an offset frequency Î© = 250 rad s-1 precess through an angle of 60Â°. How long is the delay?

Choices:
- 4.19 ms
- 26.3 ms
- 240 ms
- 1510 ms


college_chemistry

Question: Which of the following experimental observations were explained by Planckâs quantum theory?

Choices:
- Blackbody radiation curves
- Emission spectra of diatomic molecules
- Electron diffraction patterns
- Temperature dependence of reaction rates


college_chemistry

Question: What is the orbital angular momentum quantum number, l, of the electron that is most easily removed when ground-state aluminum is ionized?

Choices:
- 3
- 2
- 1
- 0


college_chemistry

Question: Cobalt-60 is used in the radiation therapy of cancer and can be produced by bombardment of cobalt-59 with which of the following?

Choices:
- Neutrons
- Alpha particles
- Beta particles
- X-rays


college_chemistry

Question: The Henryâs law constant for CO2 dissolved in water at 25Â°C is 30.0 atm M^â1. The concentration of dissolved CO2 in a vessel pressurized with 2.0 atm of CO2 is

Choices:
- 1.5 M
- 0.15 M
- 0.067 M
- 0.015 M


college_chemistry

Question: Of the following compounds, which has the lowest melting point?

Choices:
- HCl
- AgCl
- CaCl2
- CCl4


college_chemistry

Question: The molecular geometry of thionyl chloride, SOCl2, is best described as

Choices:
- trigonal planar
- T-shaped
- tetrahedral
- trigonal pyramidal


college_chemistry

Question: The +1 oxidation state is more stable than the +3 oxidation state for which group 13 element?

Choices:
- B
- Al
- In
- Tl


college_chemistry

Question: Which of the following is always true of a spontaneous process?

Choices:
- The process is exothermic.
- The process does not involve any work.
- The entropy of the system increases.
- The total entropy of the system plus surroundings increases.


college_chemistry

Question: The dissociation energy for a hydrogen-bromine bond is defined as the change in enthalpy, DH, for which of the following reactions?

Choices:
- 2 HBr(g) â H2(g) + Br2(l)
- HBr(g) â H+(g) + Brâ(g)
- H(g) + Br(g) â HBr(g)
- HBr(g) â H(g) + Br(g)


college_chemistry

Question: When the Heisenberg uncertainty principle is applied to a quantum mechanical particle in the lowest energy level of a one-dimensional box, which of the following is true?

Choices:
- Momentum is known exactly, but no information about position can be known.
- Position is known exactly, but no information about momentum can be known.
- No information about either position or momentum can be known.
- Neither position nor momentum can be known exactly.


college_chemistry

Question: Of the following ions, which has the smallest radius?

Choices:
- K+
- Ca2+
- Sc3+
- Rb+


college_chemistry

Question: At 25Â°C, the maximum amount of PbI2 that can be dissolved in 1.00 L of pure water is 1.0 mmol. Assuming complete dissociation, the solubility product, K_sp, for lead iodide at 25Â°C is

Choices:
- 1.0 Ã 10^â3
- 1.0 Ã 10^â6
- 1.0 Ã 10^â9
- 4.0 Ã 10^â9


college_chemistry

Question: Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) such as F3CCCl3 are implicated in the decomposition of stratospheric ozone. Which of the following methods would be best suited to measurement of trace amounts (sub-ppb) of CFCs in an air sample?

Choices:
- Gas chromatographic separation of the air sample on a capillary column followed by electron capture detection
- Gas chromatographic separation of the air sample on a packed column followed by thermal conductivity detection
- Gas chromatographic separation of the air sample on a capillary column followed by flame ionization detection
- Conversion of the sample of the chlorinated compounds to chloride ions, followed by titration with Ag+


college_chemistry

Question: In the vibrational-rotational spectrum of a diatomic molecule, the R-branch of the spectrum is the result of which of the following transitions?

Choices:
- ÎJ = 0; Îu = 0
- ÎJ = 1; Îu = 0
- ÎJ = 2; Îu = 0
- ÎJ = 1; Îu = 1


college_chemistry

Question: The solid-state structures of the principal allotropes of elemental boron are made up of which of the following structural units?

Choices:
- B12 icosahedra
- B8 cubes
- B6 octahedra
- B4 tetrahedra


college_chemistry

Question: The strongest base in liquid ammonia is

Choices:
- NH3
- NH2â
- NH4+
- N2H4


college_chemistry

Question: A student performs five titrations and obtains a mean result of 0.110 M, with a standard deviation of 0.001 M. If the actual concentration of the titrated solution is 0.100 M, which of the following is true about the titration results?

Choices:
- Accurate but not precise
- Precise but not accurate
- Both accurate and precise
- Neither accurate nor precise


college_chemistry

Question: What is the limiting high-temperature molar heat capacity at constant volume (C_V) of a gas-phase diatomic molecule?

Choices:
- 1.5R
- 2R
- 2.5R
- 3.5R