college_medicine

Question:
Sauna use, sometimes referred to as "sauna bathing," is characterized by short-term passive exposure to extreme heat. This exposure elicits mild hyperthermia â an increase in the body's core temperature â that induces a thermoregulatory response involving neuroendocrine, cardiovascular, and cytoprotective mechanisms that work together to restore homeostasis and condition the body for future heat stressorsâ¦ In recent decades, sauna bathing has emerged as a means to increase lifespan and improve overall health, based on compelling data from observational, interventional, and mechanistic studies. Of particular interest are the findings from studies of participants in the Kuopio Ischemic Heart Disease Risk Factor (KIHD) Study, an ongoing prospective population-based cohort study of health outcomes in more than 2,300 middle-aged men from eastern Finland, which identified strong links between sauna use and reduced death and diseaseâ¦ The KIHD findings showed that men who used the sauna two to three times per week were 27 percent less likely to die from cardiovascular-related causes than men who didn't use the sauna.[2] Furthermore, the benefits they experienced were found to be dose-dependent: Men who used the sauna roughly twice as often, about four to seven times per week, experienced roughly twice the benefits â and were 50 percent less likely to die from cardiovascular-related causes.[2] In addition, frequent sauna users were found to be 40 percent less likely to die from all causes of premature death. These findings held true even when considering age, activity levels, and lifestyle factors that might have influenced the men's health.[2]... The KIHD also revealed that frequent sauna use reduced the risk of developing dementia and Alzheimer's disease in a dose-dependent manner. Men who used the sauna two to three times per week had a 66 percent lower risk of developing dementia and a 65 percent lower risk of developing Alzheimer's disease, compared to men who used the sauna only one time per weekâ¦ The health benefits associated with sauna use extended to other aspects of mental health, as well. Men participating in the KIHD study who used the sauna four to seven times per week were 77 percent less likely to develop psychotic disorders, regardless of the men's dietary habits, socioeconomic status, physical activity, and inflammatory status (as measured by C-reactive protein)â¦Exposure to high temperature stresses the body, eliciting a rapid, robust response. The skin and core body temperatures increase markedly, and sweating ensues. The skin heats first, rising to 40Â°C (104Â°F), and then changes in core body temperature occur, rising slowly from 37Â°C (98.6Â°F, or normal) to 38Â°C (100.4Â°F) and then rapidly increasing to 39Â°C (102.2Â°F)â¦  Cardiac output, a measure of the amount of work the heart performs in response to the body's need for oxygen, increases by 60 to 70 percent, while the heart rate (the number of beats per minute) increases and the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped) remains unchanged.[5] During this time, approximately 50 to 70 percent of the body's blood flow is redistributed from the core to the skin to facilitate sweating. The average person loses approximately 0.5 kg of sweat while sauna bathing.[11] Acute heat exposure also induces a transient increase in overall plasma volume to mitigate the decrease in core blood volume. This increase in plasma volume not only provides a reserve source of fluid for sweating, but it also acts like the water in a car's radiator, cooling the body to prevent rapid increases in core body temperature and promoting heat toleranceâ¦ Repeated sauna use acclimates the body to heat and optimizes the body's response to future exposures, likely due to a biological phenomenon known as hormesis, a compensatory defense response following exposure to a mild stressor that is disproportionate to the magnitude of the stressor. Hormesis triggers a vast array of protective mechanisms that not only repair cell damage but also provide protection from subsequent exposures to more devastating stressorsâ¦ The physiological responses to sauna use are remarkably similar to those experienced during moderate- to vigorous-intensity exercise. In fact, sauna use has been proposed as an alternative to exercise for people who are unable to engage in physical activity due to chronic disease or physical limitations.[13]

Based on the article, which of the following statements is the author likely to agree with?

Choices:
- Heart surgery patients who cannot run on treadmills may benefit from sauna use.
- Patients on a diet would benefit from sauna use.
- Salt restriction would be equal to sauna use for hypertensive patients.
- Patients with skin conditions may be cured with sauna use.


college_medicine

Question: DNA polymerase creates new DNA by adding complimentary nucleotides to a template strand from the original double-stranded DNA. If a section of the template strand had a ration of 3:2 of A:T bases, what is the ration of A:T in the newly synthesized complimentary strand of DNA?

Choices:
- 3:02
- 1:01
- 2:03
- cannot be determined


college_medicine

Question: How many electrons does gold (Au) possess that have a quantum number l = 2?

Choices:
- 9
- 23
- 29
- 79


college_medicine

Question: One of the many reasons that the eukaryotic cell can possess so much information in its DNA is the ability to condense coding regions when they are not being expressed. When acting on DNA, which of the following processes will usually lead to a decrease in gene expression?

Choices:
- Increased histone acetyltransferase activity
- Decrease in histone deacetyltransferase activity
- Increase in methylation activity
- Increase in heterochromatin:euchromatin ratio


college_medicine

Question: Type I muscle fibres have the following characteristics:

Choices:
- white, glycolytic, slow contracting.
- white, oxidative, slow contracting.
- red, oxidative, fast contracting.
- red, oxidative, slow contracting.


college_medicine

Question: The coding sequences of genes are called:

Choices:
- extrons.
- exons.
- introns.
- codons.


college_medicine

Question: A race car attempting to jump a series of 8 buses is set up on a flat track with a ramp at the end. Engineers assigned to the project have determined that, in order to jump the buses, the car must reach a velocity of 130 km/h. If the distance of the track is 50m, at what rate must the car accelerate to reach this velocity?

Choices:
- 13 m/s^2
- 26 m/s^2
- 7 m/s^2
- 17 m/s^2


college_medicine

Question: The sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells acts as a:

Choices:
- store of digestive enzymes.
- store of sodium ions.
- store of lipid.
- store of calcium ions.


college_medicine

Question: A team of engineers constructing signal lights for airplanes that they can use to guide them to runways are attempting to determine the brightness needed for the pilot to be able to detect the tower at 1 mile away. They set the light to a test brightness and establish communication with an inbound pilot. When the pilot is 1 mile away from the tower, he says he cannot see the light. In terms of Signal Detection Theory, what would this be called?

Choices:
- Hit
- Miss
- False alarm
- Correct rejection


college_medicine

Question: Which of the following factors can affect enzyme activity?

Choices:
- Temperature.
- pH.
- The presence of certain metal ions.
- All of the above.


college_medicine

Question: Which of the following promotes glucose and amino acid uptake by muscle?

Choices:
- Adrenaline
- Insulin
- Glycogen
- Cortisol


college_medicine

Question:
Which of the following are steroid-based molecules?
I. Testosterone
II. Triglycerides
III. Progesterone
IV. DNA

Choices:
- I only
- I, II, and III
- I and III
- I, III, and IV


college_medicine

Question: The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex:

Choices:
- is located in the sarcoplasm.
- catalyses the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA.
- catalyses the conversion of pyruvate to lactate.
- catalyses the conversion of lactate to pyruvate.


college_medicine

Question: The trigger to initiate the contractile process in skeletal muscle is:

Choices:
- potassium binding to myosin.
- calcium binding to tropomyosin.
- ATP binding to the myosin cross bridges.
- calcium binding to troponin.


college_medicine

Question: Which of the following molecules does not form part of DNA?

Choices:
- Purine
- Pyrimidine
- Deoxyribose
- Amino acid


college_medicine

Question: Embedded in the inner membrane of the mitochondrion are:

Choices:
- the enzymes of the tricarboxylic acid cycle (Krebs' cycle).
- the components of the electron transport chain.
- glycogen molecules.
- triacylglycerol molecules.


college_medicine

Question: Diisopropylfluorophosphate (DFP) binds to the active site of acetylcholinesterase (ACE) in the synapses of neurons. When DFP binds to ACE, the ACE enzyme is rendered permanently inactive. This makes DFP a potent toxin, with lethal amounts at less than 100 mg. The interaction between DFP and ACE can best be characterized as:

Choices:
- Competitive inhibition
- Noncompetitive inhibition
- Irreversible inhibition
- Partially competitive inhibition


college_medicine

Question: The energy charge of the cell is:

Choices:
- the difference between the charge on the outside and inside of a cell.
- generated by the sodium-potassium ATPase.
- the overall rate of energy use by the cell.
- the extent to which the total adenine nucleotide pool is phosphorylated.


college_medicine

Question: The body compensates for increased environmental temperature by:

Choices:
- decreasing salt retention
- increasing respiration rate
- increasing heart rate
- increasing water lost through skin


college_medicine

Question: Which of the following can act as an intracellular buffer to limit pH changes when the rate of glycolysis is high?

Choices:
- Glutamine
- Glucose
- Carnosine
- Amylase


college_medicine

Question: What type of covalent bonds link the amino acids in a protein?

Choices:
- Peptide bonds
- Hydrogen bonds
- Ionic bonds
- Glycosidic bonds


college_medicine

Question: A source emits a sound from one medium with a certain velocity, intensity, frequency and wavelength. When the sound exits the first medium and enters a denser medium, all of the following changes EXCEPT:

Choices:
- velocity
- intensity
- frequency
- wavelength


college_medicine

Question:
Each of the following is an example of the transmission of knowledge through symbolic culture EXCEPT:
I. A young macaque monkey learning to rinse off food in the ocean from an older monkey, even when the food is not covered in dirt or sand.
II. A child learning the rules of baseball from a parent.
III. A new group of inductees in a military organization experiencing hazing rituals from older students, which they then later carry out on new recruits.

Choices:
- I only
- III only
- I and III only
- II and III only


college_medicine

Question: A scientist carrying out experiments on hearing aids fits 30 mice that were genetically modified to lose their hearing with the latest technology and were tested to press a lever when they heard a bell. This was set to varying levels of power. At 80% power, 20 mice pressed the lever. At 70% power, 15 mice pressed the lever. At 60% power, 10 mice pressed the lever. Which of the following power levels corresponds to the absolute threshold for hearing the decibels produced by the bell?

Choices:
- 80%
- 70%
- 60%
- Not enough information given.


college_medicine

Question: Phophocreatine resynthesis during recovery from exercise is inhibited by:

Choices:
- an excess of creatine.
- hyperventilation.
- an excess of oxygen.
- a lack of oxygen.


college_medicine

Question: The main fate of lactate that leaves muscle and enters the circulation is:

Choices:
- conversion to urea in the liver.
- conversion to glucose in the heart.
- excretion via the kidneys.
- uptake and oxidation by other tissues.


college_medicine

Question: A teacher sets up a reward system for her elementary school students. At the end of each day, she gives a sticker to each student who showed up on time that morning. At the end of each week, she gives a sticker to any student who got above a 90% on three quizzes in a row. After months of this regimen, she finds that performance on the quizzes has increased significantly but that tardiness has only decreased slightly. Which of the following best explains the teacherâs observation?

Choices:
- Variable ratio schedules create the strongest responses and behavior that is the least susceptible to extinction.
- The students had more intrinsic motivation to do well on quizzes than to show up on time.
- The studentsâ behavior change was stronger in response to a fixed-ratio schedule than it was to a continuous reinforcement schedule.
- The studentsâ behavior change was stronger in response to a fixed-ratio schedule than it was to a variable-interval schedule.


college_medicine

Question: The process of translation requires the presence of:

Choices:
- mRNA, tRNA and ribosomes.
- mRNA, ribosomes and RNA polymerase.
- DNA, mRNA and RNA polymerase.
- chromatin, DNA and amino acids.


college_medicine

Question: Hydrogen ions are formed when:

Choices:
- glycogen becomes depleted.
- phosphocreatine breakdown occurs.
- pyruvate is converted to lactate.
- glycolysis is being used as a major means of resynthesising ATP.


college_medicine

Question: The World Systems Theory divides the world as a unit into three subcategories: core countries, periphery countries, and semi-periphery countries. Which of the following answers correlates best with semi-periphery countries?

Choices:
- Strong central government.
- An economy centralized around one natural resource.
- A diversified and developed economy.
- Small percentage of very high class individuals.


college_medicine

Question: Which of the following molecules will stop being produced first when oxygen is no longer supplied to the cell?

Choices:
- Oxaloacetate
- Pyruvate
- Water
- Adenosine triphosphate


college_medicine

Question: Most of the free fatty acids are transported in the blood:

Choices:
- inside the red blood cells.
- as lipoproteins.
- combined with glucose.
- bound to albumin.


college_medicine

Question: Glycogen breakdown in muscle initially results in the formation of:

Choices:
- glucose.
- glucose-1-phosphate.
- glucose-6-phosphate.
- glucose-1,6-diphosphate.


college_medicine

Question: If a gas occupies 0.1L at 200atm, what will its volume be at 1atm?

Choices:
- slightly less than 20L
- 20L
- slightly more than 20L
- 2000L


college_medicine

Question: Walking down a street late at night, an adult male pedestrian notices a young female on the ground, not moving. The female is on the opposite side of the street. Crossing the street, the pedestrian notices that the young woman appears both much wealthier than he is and is of a different ethnicity. Seeing no one else present, the pedestrian renders aid. According to the bystander effect, which of the following would change how the pedestrian reacts?

Choices:
- The person requiring aid appearing to be of a lower socioeconomic class rather than a higher one
- The presence of another group of people one block up the street
- The person requiring aid appearing to be the same ethnicity rather than a different one
- The presence of one other person who is already approaching the girl


college_medicine

Question: The blood glucose concentration during 80-90 minutes of intermittent high intensity exercise:

Choices:
- frequently rises by 1 - 3 mM.
- remains relatively unchanged.
- frequently falls by 1 - 3 mM.
- falls to hypoglycaemic levels.


college_medicine

Question: The rate limiting enzyme of glycolysis is:

Choices:
- phosphorylase.
- hexokinase.
- pyruvate dehydrogenase.
- phosphofructokinase.


college_medicine

Question: Pregnancy tests are extremely sensitive and function by detecting levels of B-hCG, or human chorionic gonadotropin, in urine. This hormone is secreted by what tissue, and what is its function?

Choices:
- Corpus luteum, self-maintenance
- Endometrium, cell division
- Blastocyst, increase in blood flow
- Blastocyst, corpus luteum maintenance


college_medicine

Question: In response to period of extreme psychological trauma, a patient begins experiencing a feeling of detachment. He says, âI felt like it wasnât real while it was happening. I was just watching myself do it without any control. I mean, you know, I knew it was happening but I didnât feel like it was.â The patient is describing:

Choices:
- Dissociative identity disorder
- An anxiety disorder
- Depersonalization disorder
- A schizophrenic episode


college_medicine

Question: A fundamental cause of fatigue in high intensity exercise is:

Choices:
- a fall in the cell concentration of ADP.
- inhibition of ATP production.
- failure of the ATP supply to match the demand.
- lack of skill.


college_medicine

Question: The son of a bricklayer goes to college and i) becomes a teacher at a medical school, ii) gets promoted to tenured professor, and iii) moves across the country for a new tenured professor position at a different school. Sequentially, this man has experienced:

Choices:
- intergenerational mobility with respect to the father, horizontal mobility, horizontal mobility
- intragenerational mobility with respect to the son, upward mobility, upward mobility
- intergenerational mobility with respect to the father, upward mobility, horizontal mobility
- intragenerational mobility with respect to the son, horizontal mobility, upward mobility


college_medicine

Question: Which of the following statements is false?

Choices:
- Phosphofructokinase is the rate limiting enzyme in glycolysis.
- Phosphorylase activity is higher in Type II fibres than in Type I fibres.
- Endurance training increases the amount of TCA cycle enzymes in muscle.
- Oxygen is consumed in the TCA cycle.


college_medicine

Question:
As a result of substance abuse throughout adolescence, a young adult suffers from a number of psychological symptoms reflecting diminished executive functioning. Which of the following are likely true of this patient?
I. Pathological changes to the prefrontal cortex.
II. Increased susceptibility to auditory hallucinations.
III. Reduced behavioral impulse control.

Choices:
- I only
- III only
- I and III only
- II and III only


college_medicine

Question: Which of the following releases most energy when completely oxidised in the body?

Choices:
- One gram of glucose
- One gram of palmitic acid
- One gram of leucine
- One gram of alcohol


college_medicine

Question: Neonatal Respiratory Distress Syndrome (NRDS) is a serious complication seen in infants born prematurely who have a compromised ability to facilitate oxygen diffusion across their alveolar membranes. This is caused by inadequate surfactant production. What role does surfactant play in facilitating oxygen diffusion?

Choices:
- Increases surface permeability
- Maintains alveoli in an open state
- Depresses cilia of the lung
- Dilates blood vessels


college_medicine

Question: If the mean rate of oxygen consumption of a male athlete during a training session is 2 l/min, then his rate of energy expenditure is approximately:

Choices:
- 400 kJ/min.
- 200 kJ/min.
- 80 kJ/min.
- 40 kJ/min.


college_medicine

Question: Each of the following are aspects of the McDonaldization of Society EXCEPT:

Choices:
- Rationalization of decisions into cost/benefit analysis structures and away from traditional modes of thinking
- Bureaucratic organization that formalizes well-establish division of labor and impersonal structures
- A dissolution of hierarchical modes of authority into collaborative teambased decision protocols
- An intense effort on achieving sameness across diverse markets


college_medicine

Question: Metabolism is determined by the:

Choices:
- size of proteins in the cell.
- availability of amino acids.
- proteins formed as dictated by the genetic material.
- amino acid composition of the ribonucleic acids.


college_medicine

Question: The energy for all forms of muscle contraction is provided by:

Choices:
- ATP.
- ADP.
- phosphocreatine.
- oxidative phosphorylation.


college_medicine

Question: The activity of creatine kinase is:

Choices:
- increased when intracellular ADP rises.
- increased when muscle pH falls below 6.9.
- always lower in Type II fibres than Type I fibres.
- increased after a period of endurance training.


college_medicine

Question: Which of the following best accounts for the negative slope of the liquid-solid equilibrium line in the phase diagram for water?

Choices:
- H2O(s) has a greater density than H2O(l), which causes the solid to form liquid under high pressure conditions.
- H2O(s) has a greater density than H2O(l), which results from the hydrogen bonds formed between water molecules.
- H2O(s) has a lower density than H2O(l) which results from the crystalline framework that forms due to hydrogen bonds.
- H2O(s) has a lower density than H2O(l) which causes the solid to form liquid under low pressure conditions.


college_medicine

Question: A scientist using mouse models to determine the response of blood hormones to large levels of glucose in the body discovers a new hormone not previously described. According to his data, this hormone is found both inside and out of cells when carrying out its function, increase the amount of nucleic acid in the cell while functioning, and are derived from a structure containing four hydroxycarbon rings. This will likely be categorized as which type of hormone?

Choices:
- Enzymatic
- Steroid
- Peptide
- Amino acid


college_medicine

Question: How many CO2 and ATP molecules are formed during one complete turn of the tricarboxylic acid cycle (Krebs' cycle)?

Choices:
- 2CO2 and 2ATP
- 2CO2 and 16ATP
- 2CO2 and 12ATP
- 2CO2 and 1ATP


college_medicine

Question: The transcription of DNA to a molecule of messenger RNA occurs:

Choices:
- on the ribosomes.
- in the cytosol.
- in the nucleus.
- only during cell division.


college_medicine

Question:
Sauna use, sometimes referred to as "sauna bathing," is characterized by short-term passive exposure to extreme heat. This exposure elicits mild hyperthermia â an increase in the body's core temperature â that induces a thermoregulatory response involving neuroendocrine, cardiovascular, and cytoprotective mechanisms that work together to restore homeostasis and condition the body for future heat stressorsâ¦ In recent decades, sauna bathing has emerged as a means to increase lifespan and improve overall health, based on compelling data from observational, interventional, and mechanistic studies. Of particular interest are the findings from studies of participants in the Kuopio Ischemic Heart Disease Risk Factor (KIHD) Study, an ongoing prospective population-based cohort study of health outcomes in more than 2,300 middle-aged men from eastern Finland, which identified strong links between sauna use and reduced death and diseaseâ¦ The KIHD findings showed that men who used the sauna two to three times per week were 27 percent less likely to die from cardiovascular-related causes than men who didn't use the sauna.[2] Furthermore, the benefits they experienced were found to be dose-dependent: Men who used the sauna roughly twice as often, about four to seven times per week, experienced roughly twice the benefits â and were 50 percent less likely to die from cardiovascular-related causes.[2] In addition, frequent sauna users were found to be 40 percent less likely to die from all causes of premature death. These findings held true even when considering age, activity levels, and lifestyle factors that might have influenced the men's health.[2]... The KIHD also revealed that frequent sauna use reduced the risk of developing dementia and Alzheimer's disease in a dose-dependent manner. Men who used the sauna two to three times per week had a 66 percent lower risk of developing dementia and a 65 percent lower risk of developing Alzheimer's disease, compared to men who used the sauna only one time per weekâ¦ The health benefits associated with sauna use extended to other aspects of mental health, as well. Men participating in the KIHD study who used the sauna four to seven times per week were 77 percent less likely to develop psychotic disorders, regardless of the men's dietary habits, socioeconomic status, physical activity, and inflammatory status (as measured by C-reactive protein)â¦Exposure to high temperature stresses the body, eliciting a rapid, robust response. The skin and core body temperatures increase markedly, and sweating ensues. The skin heats first, rising to 40Â°C (104Â°F), and then changes in core body temperature occur, rising slowly from 37Â°C (98.6Â°F, or normal) to 38Â°C (100.4Â°F) and then rapidly increasing to 39Â°C (102.2Â°F)â¦  Cardiac output, a measure of the amount of work the heart performs in response to the body's need for oxygen, increases by 60 to 70 percent, while the heart rate (the number of beats per minute) increases and the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped) remains unchanged.[5] During this time, approximately 50 to 70 percent of the body's blood flow is redistributed from the core to the skin to facilitate sweating. The average person loses approximately 0.5 kg of sweat while sauna bathing.[11] Acute heat exposure also induces a transient increase in overall plasma volume to mitigate the decrease in core blood volume. This increase in plasma volume not only provides a reserve source of fluid for sweating, but it also acts like the water in a car's radiator, cooling the body to prevent rapid increases in core body temperature and promoting heat toleranceâ¦ Repeated sauna use acclimates the body to heat and optimizes the body's response to future exposures, likely due to a biological phenomenon known as hormesis, a compensatory defense response following exposure to a mild stressor that is disproportionate to the magnitude of the stressor. Hormesis triggers a vast array of protective mechanisms that not only repair cell damage but also provide protection from subsequent exposures to more devastating stressorsâ¦ The physiological responses to sauna use are remarkably similar to those experienced during moderate- to vigorous-intensity exercise. In fact, sauna use has been proposed as an alternative to exercise for people who are unable to engage in physical activity due to chronic disease or physical limitations.[13]

According to the article, which of the following is NOT a benefit of sauna use?

Choices:
- Decreased risk of heart attacks.
- Increase in stroke volume.
- Improved mental health.
- Decreased rate of erectile dysfunction.


college_medicine

Question: A muscle fibre relaxes when:

Choices:
- the nerve stimulus is removed.
- the nerve stimulus is too forceful.
- the actin binding sites are uncovered.
- the actin binding sites are saturated.


college_medicine

Question: Mutations are errors in DNA that:

Choices:
- are always harmful.
- only occur in the presence of carcinogens.
- increase tumour growth.
- occur spontaneously at a low rate.


college_medicine

Question: The energy released from the breakdown of the high-energy phosphates, ATP and phosphocreatine, can sustain maximal exertion exercise for about:

Choices:
- 1-2 seconds.
- 5-10 seconds.
- 30-40 seconds.
- 50-60 seconds.


college_medicine

Question: A scientist, using electrodes, is stimulating a group of neurons in the hypothalamus and recording their membrane potential changes. She observes a sharp rise in membrane potential when she first stimulates them, the the difference of 100mV. When she tries another stimulation immediately after the first, there is no response. However, when she increase the amount of voltage she supplies to the second shock, she observes a similar response to the first. What time period of stimulation would the second shock be characterized in regards to membrane potential?

Choices:
- Depolarization
- Repolarization
- Hyperpolarization
- Resting potential


college_medicine

Question: Codons are composed of:

Choices:
- triplet sequences of nucleotide bases in mRNA or DNA .
- quadruplet sequences of nucleotide bases in mRNA or DNA.
- triplet sequences of amino acids in polypeptide chains.
- triplet sequences of deoxyribose sugars in DNA.


college_medicine

Question: Women's world record performances have improved rapidly in recent years mainly because:

Choices:
- women have evolved a greater muscle mass.
- women can now run faster than men.
- women have started training at an earlier age.
- more women are now engaged in sport.


college_medicine

Question: The genome is:

Choices:
- the number of chromosomes found in the somatic cells of an organism.
- the entire DNA sequence of an organism.
- the entire list of proteins that an organism is capable of producing.
- the DNA sequence of an entire chromosome.


college_medicine

Question: Which of the following nucleotide bases is not found in RNA?

Choices:
- Thymine
- Adenine
- Uracil
- Guanine


college_medicine

Question: Muscle lactate production increases when:

Choices:
- oxygen is readily available.
- pyruvate cannot be formed from glucose breakdown.
- the pH of the muscle falls.
- glycolysis is activated at the onset of exercise.


college_medicine

Question: Which of the following factors does not influence success in sport?

Choices:
- Ability to tolerate heavy training without succumbing to illness or injury.
- Tactics.
- The diet.
- Ingestion of carnitine during exercise.


college_medicine

Question: The rate of blood lactate accumulation is determined by:

Choices:
- the rate of muscle lactate production and the rate of muscle lactate efflux.
- the rate of anaerobic glycolysis.
- the rate of muscle glucose uptake.
- the difference between the rate of lactate appearance and the rate of lactate clearance.


college_medicine

Question: The low intake of carbohydrate in the diet:

Choices:
- does not influence exercise performance in events lasting less than 10 minutes.
- affects the resting muscle pH.
- may impair high intensity exercise performance.
- results in greater reliance on muscle glycogen during exercise.


college_medicine

Question: In a fit of passion, the spectator of a political debate exclaims that âwelfare recipients are all lazy.â The spectatorâs thought process is an example of:

Choices:
- prejudice
- discrimination
- ethnocentrism
- conflict theory


college_medicine

Question: Glycolysis is the name given to the pathway involving the conversion of:

Choices:
- glycogen to glucose-1-phosphate.
- glycogen or glucose to fructose.
- glycogen or glucose to pyruvate or lactate.
- glycogen or glucose to pyruvate or acetyl CoA.


college_medicine

Question: The descending loop of Henle of the nephron of the kidney is permeable to which of the following substances?

Choices:
- Na+
- H2O
- K+
- Cl-


college_medicine

Question: Who set the world record for the mile race in 1886?

Choices:
- R Bannister
- S Coe
- J DiMaggio
- WG George


college_medicine

Question: The electron transport chain, which is embedded in the mitochondrial membrane, exists primarily to generate new molecules of ATP for use by the cell. This is accomplished by a positive gradient of H+ ions that are formed outside the membrane which then pass back through a specialized channel known as ATP synthase. The energy created from this phosphorylates an ATP to an ATP, known as oxidative phosphorylation. The mechanism by which H+ returns to the inside of the mitochondria is known as what?

Choices:
- Passive transport
- Passive diffusion
- Active transport
- Endocytosis


college_medicine

Question: The conversion of one molecule of glucose to two molecules of pyruvate results in the net formation of:

Choices:
- six molecules of water.
- two molecules of ATP.
- three molecules of ATP.
- thirty-eight molecules of ATP.


college_medicine

Question: A segment of DNA from a lab mouse is determined to be 5â â GGATCCTCATG â 3â. Which of the following DNA segments would be the result of this original DNA sequence experiencing both a point mutation and a deletion?

Choices:
- 5â â GCATCCTCATG â 3â
- 5â â TGATCCCAG â 3â
- 5â â GGTCCTCATC â 3â
- 5â â GGATCCATG â 3â


college_medicine

Question: For very high force contractions lasting 1-2 seconds, the initial energy source is from:

Choices:
- Glycolysis.
- creatine phosphorylation.
- phosphocreatine stores.
- ATP stores.


college_medicine

Question: Fast-twitch fibres contain:

Choices:
- a relatively large number of mitochondria and low ATPase activity.
- a relatively small number of mitochondria and low ATPase activity.
- a relatively small number of mitochondria and high ATPase activity.
- a relatively large number of mitochondria and high ATPase activity.


college_medicine

Question: The hypothalamus controls the stress response of the body by releasing CRF, which leads to eventual release of cortisol, the bodyâs stress hormone, systemically. This trigger is eventually suppressed by which mechanism?

Choices:
- Constriction of blood flow to the adrenal gland.
- Exhaustion of the bodyâs store of CRF.
- Negative feedback loop of cortisol.
- Release of CRF-inhibitory factor.


college_medicine

Question: Which of the following statements is false?

Choices:
- Ammonia is produced in repeated high intensity exercise.
- Muscle lactate accumulation does not begin until at least 5 seconds of intermittent muscle contractions have taken place.
- Muscle phosphocreatine depletion begins in the first few seconds of high intensity exercise.
- With an increasing number of repeated sprints the rate of accumulation of lactate in muscle declines.


college_medicine

Question: In games like soccer the blood lactate concentration:

Choices:
- rarely increases above 3 mM.
- is usually lower at the end of the game than at the end of the first half.
- is usually higher at the end of the game than at the end of the first half.
- increases throughout the course of the game as the players become more fatigued.


college_medicine

Question: An individual is born with a mutation causing her to partially retain a form of fetal hemoglobin into adulthood. Compared to a normal individual, this person would exhibit:

Choices:
- no differences from a normal adult.
- significantly reduced oxygen binding in the lungs.
- no symptoms, since retention of fetal hemoglobin would be fatal.
- increased oxygen binding to hemoglobin in the tissues.


college_medicine

Question: The ATP store in muscle can only supply energy in high intensity exercise for about:

Choices:
- 2 milliseconds.
- 2 seconds.
- 10 seconds.
- 20 seconds.


college_medicine

Question: After what period of time does maximal dynamic exercise become predominantly aerobic?

Choices:
- 10 seconds
- 30 seconds
- 1 minute
- 4 minutes


college_medicine

Question: Which of the following is true?

Choices:
- Increasing the protein intake above 3 grams per kg body mass per day will stimulate muscle growth and increase strength.
- Creatine supplements can increase muscle strength and power.
- Amino acid supplements can increase muscle strength and power.
- Muscle damage is induced by shortening contractions.


college_medicine

Question: Triacylglycerides consist of I. A ribose backbone II. a glycerol backbone III. three phosphodiester linkages IV. three ester linkages

Choices:
- I and III
- II only
- II and III
- II and IV


college_medicine

Question: Phosphocreatine in the muscle cell is found in:

Choices:
- the mitochondria.
- all subcellular compartments.
- the sarcolemma.
- the cytoplasm.


college_medicine

Question: A certain molecule acts by binding to cytochrome oxidase A3, the final enzyme in the electron transport chain. Administration of a large dose of this substance to a human would likely:

Choices:
- Lead to death due to an inability of the cell to pass electrons to oxygen, thus stopping aerobic respiration and asphyxiating the cells.
- Lead to death due to an inadequate supply of ADP to accept a phosphate group at the ATP synthase enzyme.
- Have no effect as cells would switch which macronutrient they metabolize to circumvent the blocked biochemical pathway.
- Increase the cellâs ATP production as negative feedback would cause the cell to up-regulate anaerobic pathways.


college_medicine

Question: For a very weak base, the pKb of a solution would likely be:

Choices:
- Equal to the pOH
- Higher than the pOH
- Lower than the pOH
- Near 7 at 25ÂºC


college_medicine

Question: A study examined admissions to exceptionally selective colleges. When examining the correlates of admission acceptance, two obvious factors that strongly correlated with admissions were GPA and standardized test scores, with correlation values of +0.41 and +0.55 respectively. However, the study also demonstrated that those students who had social networks that overlapped with the alumni networks of the selective colleges were even more likely to be admitted, with a correlation between social network and alumni network of +0.61. This correlation demonstrates:

Choices:
- the value of cultural capital.
- a meritocracy.
- he value of social capital.
- a false association.


college_medicine

Question: All of the following are example of sensory, or neural, adaptation EXCEPT:

Choices:
- After putting on a shirt, you eventually no longer feel the sensation of the fabric on your back.
- After first walking into a crowded room, you no longer are distracted by the buzz of conversation around you.
- After first walking outside on a sunny day, you no longer are blinded by the initial brightness of the light.
- After first walking into an anatomy lab, you no longer notice the smell of formaldehyde.


college_medicine

Question: Myoclonic epilepsy and ragged-red fiber (MERRF) is an extremely rare disorder that affects neuromuscular systems. MERRF results from a mutation in mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) that impairs protein synthesis, oxygen consumption, and energy production. When an affected male and a normal female reproduce, which of the following best predicts the expected phenotypic ratios of the offspring?

Choices:
- None of the offspring will be affected
- All males and no females will be affected
- Half of males and half of females will be affected
- One-fourth of the offspring will be affected


college_medicine

Question: A young man working with a therapist on becoming more productive is expressing many of his desires throughout growing up and how he feels that it has affected him. Through discernment, the therapist states that he believes the young manâs development is stuck in a stage that reflects itself by his inability to keep his house clean. According to Freudâs theory of psychosexual development, what stage would this young man be fixated in?

Choices:
- Anal
- Phallic
- Latent
- Genital


college_physics

Question: A photon strikes an electron of mass m that is initially at rest, creating an electron-positron pair. The photon is destroyed and the positron and two electrons move off at equal speeds along the initial direction of the photon. The energy of the photon was

Choices:
- mc^2
- 2mc^2
- 3mc^2
- 4mc^2


college_physics

Question: Protons used in cancer therapy are typically accelerated to about 0.6c . How much work must be done on a particle of mass m in order for it to reach this speed, assuming it starts at rest?

Choices:
- 0.25mc^2
- 0.60mc^2
- 0.67mc^2
- 1.25mc^2


college_physics

Question: A resistor in a circuit dissipates energy at a rate of 1 W. If the voltage across the resistor is doubled, what will be the new rate of energy dissipation?

Choices:
- 0.25 W
- 0.5 W
- 1 W
- 4 W


college_physics

Question: A rod measures 1.00 m in its rest system. How fast must an observer move parallel to the rod to measure its length to be 0.80 m?

Choices:
- 0.50c
- 0.60c
- 0.70c
- 0.80c


college_physics

Question: A heat pump is to extract heat from an outdoor environment at 7Â°C and heat the environment indoors to 27Â°C. For each 15,000 J of heat delivered indoors, the smallest amount of work that must be supplied to the heat pump is approximately

Choices:
- 500 J
- 1,000 J
- 1,100 J
- 2,000 J


college_physics

Question: Two students perform an experiment in which they drop a ball from rest from a known height above the ground and measure the speed of the ball just before it strikes the ground. From repeated measurement, the students estimate the uncertainty in the measured speed of the ball to be 10 percent. Which of the following gives the uncertainty in the kinetic energy of the ball? (Assume the uncertainty in the ballâs mass is negligibly small.)

Choices:
- 5%
- 10%
- 15%
- 20%


college_physics

Question: According to the BCS theory, the attraction between Cooper pairs in a superconductor is due to

Choices:
- the weak nuclear force
- the strong nuclear force
- vacuum polarization
- interactions with the ionic lattice


college_physics

Question: De Broglie hypothesized that the linear momentum and wavelength of a free massive particle are related by which of the following constants?

Choices:
- Planckâs constant
- Boltzmannâs constant
- The Rydberg constant
- The speed of light


college_physics

Question: The energy from electromagnetic waves in equilibrium in a cavity is used to melt ice. If the Kelvin temperature of the cavity is increased by a factor of two, the mass of ice that can be melted in a fixed amount of time is increased by a factor of

Choices:
- 2
- 4
- 8
- 16


college_physics

Question: The quantum efficiency of a photon detector is 0.1. If 100 photons are sent into the detector, one after the other, the detector will detect photons

Choices:
- exactly 10 times
- an average of 10 times, with an rms deviation of about 0.1
- an average of 10 times, with an rms deviation of about 1
- an average of 10 times, with an rms deviation of about 3


college_physics

Question: The emission spectrum of the doubly ionized lithium atom Li++ (Z = 3, A = 7) is identical to that of a hydrogen atom in which all the wavelengths are

Choices:
- decreased by a factor of 9
- decreased by a factor of 49
- decreased by a factor of 81
- increased by a factor of 9


college_physics

Question: An organ pipe, closed at one end and open at the other, is designed to have a fundamental frequency of C (131 Hz). What is the frequency of the next higher harmonic for this pipe?

Choices:
- 44 Hz
- 196 Hz
- 262 Hz
- 393 Hz


college_physics

Question: The suspension cable of a 1,000 kg elevator snaps, sending the elevator moving downward through its shaft. The emergency brakes of the elevator stop the elevator shortly before it reaches the bottom of the shaft. If the elevator fell a distance of 100 m starting from rest, the heat that the brakes must dissipate to bring the elevator safely to rest is

Choices:
- 10,000 J
- 100,000 J
- 1,000,000 J
- 10,000,000 J


college_physics

Question: A proton moves in the +z-direction after being accelerated from rest through a potential difference V. The proton then passes through a region with a uniform electric field E in the +x-direction and a uniform magnetic field B in the +y-direction, but the protonâs trajectory is not affected. If the experiment were repeated using a potential difference of 2V, the proton would then be

Choices:
- deflected in the +x-direction
- deflected in the -x-direction
- deflected in the +y-direction
- deflected in the -y-direction


college_physics

Question: Blue light of wavelength 480 nanometers is most strongly reflected off a thin film of oil on a glass slide when viewed near normal incidence. Assuming that the index of refraction of the oil is 1.2 and that of the glass is 1.6, what is the minimum thickness of the oil film (other than zero) ?

Choices:
- 150 nm
- 200 nm
- 300 nm
- 400 nm


college_physics

Question: Two simple pendulums A and B consist of identical masses suspended from strings of length L_A and L_B, respectively. The two pendulums oscillate in equal gravitational fields. If the period of pendulum B is twice the period of pendulum A, which of the following is true of the lengths of the two pendulums?

Choices:
- L_B = 4L_A
- L_B = 2L_A
- L_B = L_A
- L_B = 1/2 L_A


college_physics

Question: In the diamond structure of elemental carbon, the nearest neighbors of each C atom lie at the corners of a

Choices:
- square
- hexagon
- cube
- tetrahedron


college_physics

Question: The driver of a police car hears an echo of the carâs siren from a wall toward which the car is moving with a speed of 3.5 m/s. If the speed of sound is 350 m/s and the frequency of the siren is 600 Hz, the driver hears the echo at a frequency nearest to which of the following?

Choices:
- 588 Hz
- 594 Hz
- 600 Hz
- 612 Hz


college_physics

Question: Which of the following is true about any system that undergoes a reversible thermodynamic process?

Choices:
- There are no changes in the internal energy of the system.
- The temperature of the system remains constant during the process.
- The entropy of the system and its environment remains unchanged.
- The entropy of the system and its environment must increase.


college_physics

Question: The speed of light inside of a nonmagnetic dielectric material with a dielectric constant of 4.0 is

Choices:
- 1.2 * 10^9 m/s
- 3.0 * 10^8 m/s
- 1.5 * 10^8 m/s
- 1.0 * 10^8 m/s


college_physics

Question: Under certain conditions, a beam of electrons impinging on a crystal surface will diffract and a scattering pattern of the beam can be obtained. What is the approximate kinetic energy of the electrons needed in order to see the pattern? (Assume the lattice spacing of the crystal to be 0.4 nm.)

Choices:
- 0.1 eV
- 1 eV
- 10 eV
- 100 eV


college_physics

Question: A 10 kg box slides horizontally without friction at a speed of 1 m/s. At one point, a constant force is applied to the box in the direction of its motion. The box travels 5 m with the constant force applied. The force is then removed, leaving the box with a speed of 2 m/s. Which of the following gives the magnitude of the applied force?

Choices:
- 1 N
- 2 N
- 3 N
- 4 N


college_physics

Question: A magnetic field is directed perpendicular to the plane of a circular coil of area 0.2 m^2 and 250 turns. If the magnetic field is increased from 0.01 T to 0.06 T during a time interval of 0.25 s, the average induced EMF in the coil is

Choices:
- 0.04 V
- 0.1 V
- 2.5 V
- 10 V


college_physics

Question: Characteristic X rays, appearing as sharp lines on a continuous background, are produced when high-energy electrons bombard a metal target. Which of the following processes results in the characteristic X rays?

Choices:
- Electrons producing Äerenkov radiation
- Electrons colliding with phonons in the metal
- Electrons filling inner shell vacancies that are created in the metal atoms
- Electrons combining with protons to form neutrons


college_physics

Question: Electromagnetic radiation emitted from a nucleus is most likely to be in the form of

Choices:
- gamma rays
- microwaves
- ultraviolet radiation
- visible light


college_physics

Question: A single-electron atom has the electron in the l = 2 state. The number of allowed values of the quantum number m_l is

Choices:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 5


college_physics

Question: One end of a horizontal, massless spring is attached to a wall. A mass of 0.30 kg is attached to the other end of the spring and rests on a table. The mass is displaced 0.030 m from its equilibrium position and released. It has a speed of 0.040 m/s as it passes through its equilibrium position. In the absence of friction, what is the total mechanical energy of the system?

Choices:
- 0.24 mJ
- 0.38 mJ
- 0.48 mJ
- 0.75 mJ


college_physics

Question: At the present time, the temperature of the universe (i.e., the microwave radiation background) is about 3 K. When the temperature was 12 K, typical objects in the universe, such as galaxies, were

Choices:
- one-quarter as distant as they are today
- one-half as distant as they are today
- separated by about the same distances as they are today
- two times as distant as they are today


college_physics

Question: Two identical satellites, A and B, are in circular orbits around Earth. The orbital radius of A is twice that of B. Which of the following gives the ratio of the angular momentum of A to the angular momentum of B?

Choices:
- 4
- 2
- sqrt(2)
- 1/sqrt(2)


college_physics

Question: A meter stick with a speed of 0.8c moves past an observer. In the observerâs reference frame, how long does it take the stick to pass the observer ?

Choices:
- 1.6 ns
- 2.5 ns
- 4.2 ns
- 6.9 ns


college_physics

Question: A single-electron atom has the electron in the l = 2 state. The number of allowed values of the quantum number m_l is

Choices:
- 5
- 4
- 3
- 2


college_physics

Question: If the Sun were suddenly replaced by a black hole of the same mass, it would have a Schwarzschild radius of 3,000 m. What effect, if any, would this change have on the orbits of the planets?

Choices:
- The planets would move directly toward the Sun.
- The planets would move in spiral orbits.
- The planets would oscillate about their former elliptical orbits.
- The orbits would remain unchanged.


college_physics

Question: An atom has filled n = 1 and n = 2 levels. How many electrons does the atom have?

Choices:
- 2
- 4
- 6
- 10


college_physics

Question: Which of the following lasers utilizes transitions that involve the energy levels of free atoms?

Choices:
- Diode laser
- Dye laser
- Free-electron laser
- Gas laser


college_physics

Question: The hydrogen lines observed in the spectrum of the quasar 3C9 are shifted so far into the red that their wavelengths are three times as long as those observed in the light from hydrogen atoms at rest in a laboratory on Earth. If it is assumed that the shift is entirely due to the relative motion of 3C9 and Earth, the relative speed of the quasar is

Choices:
- 2c
- c
- 0.8c
- 0.5c


college_physics

Question: A grating spectrometer can just barely resolve two wavelengths of 500 nm and 502 nm, respectively. Which of the following gives the resolving power of the spectrometer?

Choices:
- 2
- 250
- 5,000
- 10,000


college_physics

Question: A gas cell with an optical path length of 10 cm is placed in one arm of a Michelson interferometer. If the light source for the interferometer is a laser with wavelength 632.2 nm, then 100 fringes are counted as the gas cell is evacuated. What is the index of refraction of the original gas?

Choices:
- 1.00063
- 1.00032
- 1.00016
- 0.99968


college_physics

Question: Excited states of the helium atom can be characterized as para- (antiparallel electron spins) and ortho- (parallel electron spins). The observation that an ortho- state has lower energy than the corresponding para- state can be understood in terms of which of the following?

Choices:
- The Heisenberg uncertainty principle
- The Pauli exclusion principle
- The Bohr model of the atom
- Nuclear hyperfine coupling


college_physics

Question: If the absolute temperature of a blackbody is increased by a factor of 3, the energy radiated per second per unit area does which of the following?

Choices:
- Decreases by a factor of 81.
- Decreases by a factor of 9.
- Increases by a factor of 9.
- Increases by a factor of 81.


college_physics

Question: The emission spectrum of the doubly ionized lithium atom Li++ (Z = 3, A = 7) is identical to that of a hydrogen atom in which all the wavelengths are

Choices:
- decreased by a factor of 9
- decreased by a factor of 49
- decreased by a factor of 81
- increased by a factor of 9


college_physics

Question: Assume that the solar flux at Earthâs surface is 1,000 W/m^2 and that the sunlight is normal to a completely reflecting surface with an area of 3 m^2. What is the total radiation force exerted on the surface?

Choices:
- 2 x 10^-6 N
- 1 x 10^-5 N
- 2 x 10^-5 N
- 3 N


college_physics

Question: Excited states of the helium atom can be characterized as para- (antiparallel electron spins) and ortho- (parallel electron spins). The observation that an ortho- state has lower energy than the corresponding para- state can be understood in terms of which of the following?

Choices:
- The Heisenberg uncertainty principle
- The Pauli exclusion principle
- The Bohr model of the atom
- Nuclear hyperfine coupling


college_physics

Question: Which of the following is true about any system that undergoes a reversible thermodynamic process?

Choices:
- There are no changes in the internal energy of the system.
- The temperature of the system remains constant during the process.
- The entropy of the system and its environment remains unchanged.
- The entropy of the system and its environment must increase.


college_physics

Question: Light of variable frequency shines on the metal surface of a photoelectric tube. Einsteinâs theory of the photoelectric effect predicts that the

Choices:
- work function of the metal is proportional to the frequency
- work function of the metal is proportional to the wavelength
- current in the tube is a linear function of the wavelength
- potential difference necessary to stop the emitted electrons is a linear function of the frequency above the threshold frequency


college_physics

Question: A tube of water is traveling at 1/2 c relative to the lab frame when a beam of light traveling in the same direction as the tube enters it. What is the speed of light in the water relative to the lab frame? (The index of refraction of water is 4/3.)

Choices:
- 1/2 c
- 2/3 c
- 5/6 c
- 10/11 c


college_physics

Question: A net force F_A acts on object A, and a net force F_B acts on object B. The mass of object B is twice the mass of object A, and the acceleration of object B is twice that of object A. Which of the following is true of forces F_A and F_B?

Choices:
- F_B = 1/4 F_A
- F_B = 1/2 F_A
- F_B = 2F_A
- F_B = 4F_A


college_physics

Question: A uniform solid disk starts from rest and rolls down an inclined plane without slipping. After some time, what fraction of the diskâs total kinetic energy is rotational kinetic energy?

Choices:
- 1/4
- 1/3
- 1/2
- 2/3


college_physics

Question: An astronomer observes a very small moon orbiting a planet and measures the moonâs minimum and maximum distances from the planetâs center and the moonâs maximum orbital speed. Which of the following CANNOT be calculated from these measurements?

Choices:
- Mass of the moon
- Mass of the planet
- Minimum speed of the moon
- Period of the orbit


college_physics

Question: A uniform solid disk starts from rest and rolls down an inclined plane without slipping. After some time, what fraction of the diskâs total kinetic energy is rotational kinetic energy?

Choices:
- 1/4
- 1/3
- 1/2
- 2/3


college_physics

Question: The speed of light inside of a nonmagnetic dielectric material with a dielectric constant of 4.0 is

Choices:
- 1.2 x 10^9 m/s
- 3.0 x 10^8 m/s
- 1.5 x 10^8 m/s
- 1.0 x 10^8 m/s


college_physics

Question: Under certain conditions, a beam of electrons impinging on a crystal surface will diffract and a scattering pattern of the beam can be obtained. What is the approximate kinetic energy of the electrons needed in order to see the pattern? (Assume the lattice spacing of the crystal to be 0.4 nm.)

Choices:
- 0.1 eV
- 1 eV
- 10 eV
- 100 eV


college_physics

Question: The first five harmonics produced by an organ pipe open at both ends are 50 Hz, 100 Hz, 150 Hz, 200 Hz, and 250 Hz. Which of the harmonics, if any, will survive once the pipe is closed at one end?

Choices:
- 50 Hz, 150 Hz, and 250 Hz only
- 100 Hz and 200 Hz only
- 150 Hz and 250 Hz only
- None


college_physics

Question: A spring of force constant k is stretched a certain distance. It takes twice as much work to stretch a second spring by half this distance. The force constant of the second spring is

Choices:
- k
- 2k
- 4k
- 8k


college_physics

Question: Electromagnetic radiation provides a means to probe aspects of the physical universe. Which of the following statements regarding radiation spectra is NOT correct?

Choices:
- Lines in the infrared, visible, and ultraviolet regions of the spectrum reveal primarily the nuclear structure of the sample.
- The wavelengths identified in an absorption spectrum of an element are among those in its emission spectrum.
- Absorption spectra can be used to determine which elements are present in distant stars.
- Spectral analysis can be used to identify the composition of galactic dust.


college_physics

Question: The best type of laser with which to do spectroscopy over a range of visible wavelengths is

Choices:
- a dye laser
- a helium-neon laser
- an excimer laser
- a ruby laser


college_physics

Question: The sign of the charge carriers in a doped semiconductor can be deduced by measuring which of the following properties?

Choices:
- Specific heat
- Thermal conductivity
- Electrical resistivity
- Hall coefficient


college_physics

Question: Light from a laser falls on a pair of very narrow slits separated by 0.5 micrometer, and bright fringes separated by 1.0 millimeter are observed on a distant screen. If the frequency of the laser light is doubled, what will be the separation of the bright fringes?

Choices:
- 0.25 mm
- 0.5 mm
- 1.0 mm
- 2.0 mm


college_physics

Question: A 3-microfarad capacitor is connected in series with a 6-microfarad capacitor. When a 300-volt potential difference is applied across this combination, the total energy stored in the two capacitors is

Choices:
- 0.09 J
- 0.18 J
- 0.27 J
- 0.41 J


college_physics

Question: The sign of the charge carriers in a doped semiconductor can be deduced by measuring which of the following properties?

Choices:
- Magnetic susceptibility
- Hall coefficient
- Electrical resistivity
- Thermal conductivity


college_physics

Question: The negative muon, mu^-, has properties most similar to which of the following?

Choices:
- Electron
- Meson
- Photon
- Boson


college_physics

Question: The suspension cable of a 1,000 kg elevator snaps, sending the elevator moving downward through its shaft. The emergency brakes of the elevator stop the elevator shortly before it reaches the bottom of the shaft. If the elevator fell a distance of 100 m starting from rest, the heat that the brakes must dissipate to bring the elevator safely to rest is

Choices:
- 100 J
- 1,000 J
- 10,000 J
- 1,000,000 J


college_physics

Question: The best type of laser with which to do spectroscopy over a range of visible wavelengths is

Choices:
- a dye laser
- a helium-neon laser
- an excimer laser
- a ruby laser


college_physics

Question: White light is normally incident on a puddle of water (index of refraction 1.33). A thin (500 nm) layer of oil (index of refraction 1.5) floats on the surface of the puddle. Of the following, the most strongly reflected wavelength is

Choices:
- 500 nm
- 550 nm
- 600 nm
- 650 nm


college_physics

Question: Sound waves moving at 350 m/s diffract out of a speaker enclosure with an opening that is a long rectangular slit 0.14 m across. At about what frequency will the sound first disappear at an angle of 45q from the normal to the speaker face?

Choices:
- 500 Hz
- 1,750 Hz
- 2,750 Hz
- 3,500 Hz


college_physics

Question: Which of the following gives the total spin quantum number of the electrons in the ground state of neutral nitrogen (Z = 7)?

Choices:
- 1/2
- 1
- 3/2
- 5/2


college_physics

Question: The surface of the Sun has a temperature close to 6,000 K and it emits a blackbody (Planck) spectrum that reaches a maximum near 500 nm. For a body with a surface temperature close to 300 K, at what wavelength would the thermal spectrum reach a maximum?

Choices:
- 10:00 PM
- 100 Pm
- 10 mm
- 100 mm


college_physics

Question: A rod measures 1.00 m in its rest system. How fast must an observer move parallel to the rod to measure its length to be 0.80 m?

Choices:
- 0.50c
- 0.60c
- 0.70c
- 0.80c


college_physics

Question: By definition, the electric displacement current through a surface S is proportional to the

Choices:
- rate of change of the electric flux through S
- electric flux through S
- time integral of the magnetic flux through S
- rate of change of the magnetic flux through S


college_physics

Question: If the total energy of a particle of mass m is equal to twice its rest energy, then the magnitude of the particleâs relativistic momentum is

Choices:
- mc/2
- mc/(2^(1/2))
- mc
- (3^(1/2))mc


college_physics

Question: An object is thrown horizontally from the open window of a building. If the initial speed of the object is 20 m/s and it hits the ground 2.0 s later, from what height was it thrown? (Neglect air resistance and assume the ground is level.)

Choices:
- 4.9 m
- 9.8 m
- 10.0 m
- 19.6 m


college_physics

Question: Which of the following statements about bosons and/or fermions is true?

Choices:
- Bosons have symmetric wave functions and obey the Pauli exclusion principle.
- Bosons have antisymmetric wave functions and do not obey the Pauli exclusion principle.
- Fermions have symmetric wave functions and obey the Pauli exclusion principle.
- Fermions have antisymmetric wave functions and obey the Pauli exclusion principle.


college_physics

Question: White light is normally incident on a puddle of water (index of refraction 1.33). A thin (500 nm) layer of oil (index of refraction 1.5) floats on the surface of the puddle. Of the following, the most strongly reflected wavelength is

Choices:
- 500 nm
- 550 nm
- 600 nm
- 650 nm


college_physics

Question: Which of the following ions CANNOT be used as a dopant in germanium to make an n-type semiconductor?

Choices:
- As
- P
- Sb
- B


college_physics

Question: The quantum efficiency of a photon detector is 0.1. If 100 photons are sent into the detector, one after the other, the detector will detect photons

Choices:
- an average of 10 times, with an rms deviation of about 4
- an average of 10 times, with an rms deviation of about 3
- an average of 10 times, with an rms deviation of about 1
- an average of 10 times, with an rms deviation of about 0.1


college_physics

Question: A student makes 10 one-second measurements of the disintegration of a sample of a long-lived radioactive isotope and obtains the following values: 3, 0, 2, 1, 2, 4, 0, 1, 2, 5. How long should the student count to establish the rate to an uncertainty of 1 percent?

Choices:
- 80 s
- 160 s
- 2,000 s
- 5,000 s


college_physics

Question: A magnetic field is directed perpendicular to the plane of a circular coil of area 0.2 m^2 and 250 turns. If the magnetic field is increased from 0.01 T to 0.06 T during a time interval of 0.25 s, the average induced EMF in the coil is

Choices:
- 0.04 V
- 0.1 V
- 2.5 V
- 10 V


college_physics

Question: The coefficient of static friction between a small coin and the surface of a turntable is 0.30. The turntable rotates at 33.3 revolutions per minute. What is the maximum distance from the center of the turntable at which the coin will not slide?

Choices:
- 0.024 m
- 0.048 m
- 0.121 m
- 0.242 m


college_physics

Question: By definition, the electric displacement current through a surface S is proportional to the

Choices:
- magnetic flux through S
- rate of change of the magnetic flux through S
- time integral of the magnetic flux through S
- rate of change of the electric flux through S


college_physics

Question: An observer O at rest midway between two sources of light at x = 0 and x = 10 m observes the two sources to flash simultaneously. According to a second observer O', moving at a constant speed parallel to the x-axis, one source of light flashes 13 ns before the other. Which of the following gives the speed of O' relative to O?

Choices:
- 0.13c
- 0.15c
- 0.36c
- 0.53c


college_physics

Question: The primary source of the Sunâs energy is a series of thermonuclear reactions in which the energy produced is c^2 times the mass difference between

Choices:
- two hydrogen atoms and one helium atom
- four hydrogen atoms and one helium atom
- six hydrogen atoms and two helium atoms
- three helium atoms and one carbon atom


college_physics

Question: Consider an electron in the n = 4, l = 1 state in hydrogen. Which of the following final states can NOT be reached by an allowed transition?

Choices:
- n = 3, l = 2
- n = 3, l = 1
- n = 3, l = 0
- n = 2, l = 0


college_physics

Question: A particle is constrained to move in a circle with a 10-meter radius. At one instant, the particleâs speed is 10 meters per second and is increasing at a rate of 10 meters per second squared. The angle between the particleâs velocity and acceleration vectors is

Choices:
- 0Â°
- 30Â°
- 45Â°
- 60Â°


college_physics

Question: The eigenvalues of a Hermitian operator are always

Choices:
- real
- imaginary
- degenerate
- linear


college_physics

Question: Consider three identical, ideal capacitors. The first capacitor is charged to a voltage and then disconnected from the battery. The other two capacitors, initially uncharged and connected in series, are then connected across the first capacitor. What is the final voltage on the first capacitor?

Choices:
- V_0/5
- V_0/3
- V_0/2
- 2V_0/3


college_physics

Question: In a nonrelativistic, one-dimensional collision, a particle of mass 2m collides with a particle of mass m at rest. If the particles stick together after the collision, what fraction of the initial kinetic energy is lost in the collision?

Choices:
- 0
- 1/4
- 1/3
- 1/2


college_physics

Question: A nonrelativistic particle with a charge twice that of an electron moves through a uniform magnetic field. The field has a strength of Ï/4 tesla and is perpendicular to the velocity of the particle. What is the particleâs mass if it has a cyclotron frequency of 1,600 hertz?

Choices:
- 2.5 * 10^-23 kg
- 1.2 * 10^-22 kg
- 3.3 * 10^-22 kg
- 5.0 * 10^-21 kg


college_physics

Question: The energy required to remove both electrons from the helium atom in its ground state is 79.0 eV. How much energy is required to ionize helium (i.e., to remove one electron)?

Choices:
- 24.6 eV
- 39.5 eV
- 51.8 eV
- 54.4 eV


college_physics

Question: A satellite of mass m orbits a planet of mass M in a circular orbit of radius R. The time required for one revolution is

Choices:
- independent of M
- proportional to m^(1/2)
- linear in R
- proportional to R^(3/2)


college_physics

Question: At 20Â°C, a pipe open at both ends resonates at a frequency of 440 hertz. At what frequency does the same pipe resonate on a particularly cold day when the speed of sound is 3 percent lower than it would be at 20Â°C ?

Choices:
- 414 Hz
- 427 Hz
- 433 Hz
- 440 Hz


college_physics

Question: A 10 kg box slides horizontally without friction at a speed of 1 m/s. At one point, a constant force is applied to the box in the direction of its motion. The box travels 5 m with the constant force applied. The force is then removed, leaving the box with a speed of 2 m/s. Which of the following gives the magnitude of the applied force?

Choices:
- 1 N
- 2 N
- 3 N
- 4 N


college_physics

Question: Under ideal conditions, the electric and magnetic fields inside a superconductor are zero. Maxwellâs equations imply that which of the following must be true just outside the surface of the superconductor?

Choices:
- B = 0
- B is perpendicular to the surface.
- B is tangential to the surface.
- B is time independent.


college_physics

Question: Positronium is an atom formed by an electron and a positron (antielectron). It is similar to the hydrogen atom, with the positron replacing the proton. If a positronium atom makes a transition from the state with n=3 to a state with n=1, the energy of the photon emitted in this transition is closest to

Choices:
- 6.0 e
- 6.8 eV
- 12.2 eV
- 13.6 eV


college_physics

Question: Unpolarized light is incident on a pair of ideal linear polarizers whose transmission axes make an angle of 45q with each other. The transmitted light intensity through both polarizers is what percentage of the incident intensity?

Choices:
- 100%
- 75%
- 50%
- 25%


college_physics

Question: Protons used in cancer therapy are typically accelerated to about 0.6c. How much work must be done on a particle of mass m in order for it to reach this speed, assuming it starts at rest?

Choices:
- 0.25mc^2
- 0.60mc^2
- 0.67mc^2
- 1.25mc^2


college_physics

Question: A three-dimensional harmonic oscillator is in thermal equilibrium with a temperature reservoir at temperature T. The average total energy of the oscillator is

Choices:
- (1/2) k T
- kT
- (3/2) k T
- 3kT


college_physics

Question: Light of variable frequency shines on the metal surface of a photoelectric tube. Einsteinâs theory of the photoelectric effect predicts that the

Choices:
- work function of the metal is proportional to the frequency
- work function of the metal is proportional to the wavelength
- current in the tube is a linear function of the wavelength
- potential difference necessary to stop the emitted electrons is a linear function of the frequency above the threshold frequency


college_physics

Question: Two spaceships approach Earth with equal speeds, as measured by an observer on Earth, but from opposite directions. A meterstick on one spaceship is measured to be 60 cm long by an occupant of the other spaceship. What is the speed of each spaceship, as measured by the observer on Earth?

Choices:
- 0.4c
- 0.5c
- 0.6c
- 0.7c


college_physics

Question: The rest mass of a particle with total energy 5.0 GeV and momentum 4.9 GeV/c is approximately

Choices:
- 0.1 GeV/c^2
- 0.2 GeV/c^2
- 0.5 GeV/c^2
- 1.0 GeV/c^2


college_physics

Question: The mean kinetic energy of the conduction electrons in metals is ordinarily much higher than kT because

Choices:
- electrons have many more degrees of freedom than atoms do
- the electrons and the lattice are not in thermal equilibrium
- the electrons form a degenerate Fermi gas
- electrons in metals are highly relativistic


college_physics

Question: A particle decays in 2.0 ms in its rest frame. If the same particle moves at v=0.60c in the lab frame, how far will it travel in the lab before decaying?

Choices:
- 150 m
- 288 m
- 360 m
- 450 m


econometrics

Question:
Consider the following AR(2) process:

yt = 1.5 yt-1 - 0.5 yt-2 + ut

This is a

Choices:
- Stationary process
- Unit root process
- Explosive process
- Stationary and unit root process


econometrics

Question: The fixed effects panel model is also sometimes known as

Choices:
- A seemingly unrelated regression model
- The least squares dummy variables approach
- The random effects model
- Heteroscedasticity and autocorrelation consistent


econometrics

Question: Suppose that we are interested in testing the null hypothesis that a GARCH(2,2) model can be restricted to a process with a constant conditional variance using the likelihood ratio test approach. Which of the following statements are true?

Choices:
- The test statistic will follow a chi-squared distribution with 2 degrees of freedom under the null hypothesis
- The value of the log-likelihood function will almost always be bigger for the restricted model than for the unrestricted model
- If the relevant values of the log-likelihood functions are -112.3 and -118.4, the value of the test statistic is 12.2
- The likelihood ratio test compares the slopes of the log-likelihood function at the maximum and at the restricted parameter value.


econometrics

Question: Which of the following statements is INCORRECT concerning the classical hypothesis testing framework?

Choices:
- If the null hypothesis is rejected, the alternative is accepted
- The null hypothesis is the statement being tested while the alternative encompasses the remaining outcomes of interest
- The test of significance and confidence interval approaches will always give the same conclusions
- Hypothesis tests are used to make inferences about the population parameters.


econometrics

Question:
Suppose that the value of $R^2$ for an estimated regression model is exactly zero. Which of the following are true?

i) All coefficient estimates on the slopes will be zero

ii) The fitted line will be horizontal with respect to all of the explanatory variables

iii) The regression line has not explained any of the variability of y about its mean value

iv) The intercept coefficient estimate must be zero.

Choices:
- (ii) and (iv) only
- (i) and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)


econometrics

Question: Suppose that 100 separate firms were tested to determine how many of them "beat the market" using a Jensen-type regression, and it is found that 3 fund managers significantly do so. Does this suggest prima facie evidence for stock market inefficiency?

Choices:
- Yes
- No
- In order to answer this question, you would need to test every fund manager trading in that market
- There is insufficient information given in the question to draw a conclusion about market efficiency.


econometrics

Question:
Which of the following conditions are necessary for a series to be classifiable as a weakly stationary process?

(i) It must have a constant mean

(ii) It must have a constant variance

(iii) It must have constant autocovariances for given lags

(iv) It must have a constant probability distribution

Choices:
- (ii) and (iv) only
- (i) and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)


econometrics

Question: If an estimator is said to have minimum variance, which of the following statements is NOT implied?

Choices:
- The probability that the estimate is a long way away from its true value is minimised
- The estimator is efficient
- Such an estimator would be termed "best"
- Such an estimator will always be unbiased


econometrics

Question:
Which of the following may be consequences of one or more of the CLRM assumptions being violated?

i) The coefficient estimates are not optimal

ii) The standard error estimates are not optimal

iii) The distributions assumed for the test statistics are inappropriate

iv) Conclusions regarding the strength of relationships between the dependent

and independent variables may be invalid.

Choices:
- (ii) and (iv) only
- (i) and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)


econometrics

Question: If a Johansen "trace" test for a null hypothesis of 2 cointegrating vectors is applied to a system containing 4 variables is conducted, which eigenvalues would be used in the test?

Choices:
- All of them
- The largest 2
- The smallest 2
- The second largest


econometrics

Question: Which one of the following criticisms of the Dickey-Fuller/Engle-Granger approach to dealing with cointegrated variables is overcome by the Engle-Yoo (EY) procedure?

Choices:
- In the context of small samples, Dickey Fuller tests are prone to conclude that there is a unit root in a series when there is not
- The Engle-Granger (EG) approach can only detect up to one cointegrating relationship even though there could be more than one
- The variables are treated asymmetrically in the cointegrating tests
- It is not possible to perform tests about the cointegrating relationship


econometrics

Question:
Which of the following statements are true concerning maximum likelihood (ML) estimation in the context of GARCH models?

i) Maximum likelihood estimation selects the parameter values that maximise the

probability that we would have actually observed the values of the series y that we

actually did.

ii) GARCH models can only be estimated by ML and not by OLS

iii) For estimation of a standard linear model (with no GARCH), the OLS and ML

estimates for the slope and intercept parameters will be identical but the estimator

for the variance of the disturbances is slightly different

iv) Most computer packages use numerical procedures to estimate GARCH models

rather than a set of analytical formulae

Choices:
- (ii) and (iv) only
- (i) and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)


econometrics

Question: Which of the following statements is true concerning forecasting in econometrics?

Choices:
- Forecasts can only be made for time-series data
- Mis-specified models are certain to produce inaccurate forecasts
- Structural forecasts are simpler to produce than those from time series models
- In-sample forecasting ability is a poor test of model adequacy


econometrics

Question: Consider a series that follows an MA(1) with zero mean and a moving average coefficient of 0.4. What is the value of the autocovariance at lag 1?

Choices:
- 0.4
- 1
- 0.34
- It is not possible to determine the value of the autocovariances without knowing the disturbance variance.


econometrics

Question: The purpose of "augmenting" the Dickey-Fuller test regression is to

Choices:
- Ensure that there is no heteroscedasticity in the test regression residuals.
- Ensure that the test regression residuals are normally distributed
- Ensure that there is no autocorrelation in the test regression residuals
- Ensure that all of the non-stationarity is taken into account.


econometrics

Question: If there were a leverage effect in practice, what would be the shape of the news impact curve for as model that accounted for that leverage?

Choices:
- It would rise more quickly for negative disturbances than for positive ones of the same magnitude
- It would be symmetrical about zero
- It would rise less quickly for negative disturbances than for positive ones of the same magnitude
- It would be zero for all positive disturbances


econometrics

Question:
Which of the following features of financial asset return time-series could be captured using a standard GARCH(1,1) model?

i) Fat tails in the return distribution

ii) Leverage effects

iii) Volatility clustering

iv) Volatility affecting returns

Choices:
- (ii) and (iv) only
- (i) and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)


econometrics

Question:
Under which of the following situations would bootstrapping be preferred to pure simulation?

i) If it is desired that the distributional properties of the data in the experiment

are the same as those of some actual data

ii) If it is desired that the distributional properties of the data in the experiment

are known exactly

iii) If the distributional properties of the actual data are unknown

iv) If the sample of actual data available is very small

Choices:
- (ii) and (iv) only
- (i) and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), and (iv) only
- (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)


econometrics

Question: Which of the following statements is false concerning the linear probability model?

Choices:
- There is nothing in the model to ensure that the estimated probabilities lie between zero and one
- Even if the probabilities are truncated at zero and one, there will probably be many observations for which the probability is either exactly zero or exactly one
- The error terms will be heteroscedastic and not normally distributed
- The model is much harder to estimate than a standard regression model with a continuous dependent variable


econometrics

Question:
Which of the following estimation techniques are available for the estimation of over-identified systems of simultaneous equations?

i) OLS

ii) ILS

iii) 2SLS

iv) IV

Choices:
- (iii) only
- (iii) and (iv) only
- (ii), (iii), and (iv) only
- (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)


econometrics

Question:
Which of the following statements are true concerning the Box-Jenkins approach to diagnostic testing for ARMA models?

(i) The tests will show whether the identified model is either too large or too small

(ii) The tests involve checking the model residuals for autocorrelation, heteroscedasticity, and non-normality

(iii) If the model suggested at the identification stage is appropriate, the acf and pacf for the residuals should show no additional structure

(iv) If the model suggested at the identification stage is appropriate, the coefficients on the additional variables under the overfitting approach will be statistically insignificant

Choices:
- (ii) and (iv) only
- (i) and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)


econometrics

Question: A Hausman test would be used for

Choices:
- Determining whether an equation that is part of a simultaneous system is identified
- Determining whether a simultaneous framework is needed for a particular variable
- Determining whether 2SLS or ILS is optimal
- Determining whether the structural form equations can be obtained via substitution from the reduced forms


econometrics

Question: An ARMA(p,q) (p, q are integers bigger than zero) model will have

Choices:
- An acf and pacf that both decline geometrically
- An acf that declines geometrically and a pacf that is zero after p lags
- An acf that declines geometrically and a pacf that is zero after q lags
- An acf that is zero after p lags and a pacf that is zero after q lags


econometrics

Question: Under the matrix notation for the classical linear regression model, $y = X \beta + u$, what are the dimensions of $u$?

Choices:
- T x k
- T x 1
- k x 1
- 1 x 1


econometrics

Question: If OLS is applied separately to each equation that is part of a simultaneous system, the resulting estimates will be

Choices:
- Unbiased and consistent
- Biased but consistent
- Biased and inconsistent
- It is impossible to apply OLS to equations that are part of a simultaneous system


econometrics

Question: How many parameters will be required to be estimated in total for all equations of a standard form, unrestricted, tri-variate VAR(4), ignoring the intercepts?

Choices:
- 12
- 4
- 3
- 36


econometrics

Question:
Which of the following are alternative names for the independent variable (usually denoted by x) in linear regression analysis?

(i) The regressor

(ii) The regressand

(iii) The causal variable

(iv) The effect variable

Choices:
- (ii) and (iv) only
- (i) and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)


econometrics

Question:
Which of the following could result in autocorrelated residuals?

i) Slowness of response of the dependent variable to changes in the values of the independent variables

ii) Over-reactions of the dependent variable to changes in the independent variables

iii) Omission of relevant explanatory variables that are autocorrelated

iv) Outliers in the data

Choices:
- (ii) and (iv) only
- (i) and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)


econometrics

Question:
Which of the following are characteristics of a stationary process?

i) It crosses its mean value frequently

ii) It has constant mean and variance

iii) It contains no trend component

iv) It will be stationary in first difference form

Choices:
- (ii) and (iv) only
- (i) and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)


econometrics

Question: Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning the standard regression model?

Choices:
- y has a probability distribution
- x has a probability distribution
- The disturbance term is assumed to be correlated with x
- For an adequate model, the residual (u-hat) will be zero for all sample data points


econometrics

Question: If a Durbin Watson statistic takes a value close to zero, what will be the value of the first order autocorrelation coefficient?

Choices:
- Close to zero
- Close to plus one
- Close to minus one
- Close to either minus one or plus one


econometrics

Question:
Consider the following sample autocorrelation estimates obtained using 250 data points:

1) Lag 1 2 3

2) Coefficient 0.2 -0.15 -0.1

3) Assuming that the coefficients are approximately normally distributed, which of the coefficients are statistically significant at the 5% level?

Choices:
- 1 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 1, 2 and 3 only
- It is not possible to determine the statistical significance since no standard errors have been given


econometrics

Question: Which one of the following is examined by looking at a goodness of fit statistic?

Choices:
- How well the population regression function fits the data
- How well the sample regression function fits the population regression function
- How well the sample regression function fits the data
- How well the population regression function fits the sample regression function.


econometrics

Question: Note that statistical tables are not necessary to answer this question. For a sample of 1000 observations, the Dickey-Fuller test statistic values are

Choices:
- More negative than (i.e. bigger in absolute value than) those in the left hand tail of a normal distribution
- Less negative than (i.e. smaller in absolute value than) those in the left hand tail of a normal distribution
- Obtained from an analytical formula for the density of the Dickey-Fuller distribution
- More negative (i.e. bigger in absolute value) for a 10% size of test than a 5% test.


econometrics

Question: Which of the following is a disadvantage of the random effects approach to estimating a panel model?

Choices:
- The approach may not be valid if the composite error term is correlated with one or more of the explanatory variables
- The number of parameters to estimate may be large, resulting in a loss of degrees of freedom
- The random effects approach can only capture cross-sectional heterogeneity and not temporal variation in the dependent variable.
- All of (a) to (c) are potential disadvantages of the random effects approach.


econometrics

Question: Which one of the following statements is true concerning VARs?

Choices:
- The coefficient estimates have intuitive theoretical interpretations
- The coefficient estimates usually have the same sign for all of the lags of a given variable in a given equation
- VARs often produce better forecasts than simultaneous equation structural models
- All of the components of a VAR must be stationary before it can be used for forecasting


econometrics

Question:
Suppose that the following regression is estimated using 27 quarterly observations:

$y_t = \beta_1 + \beta_2 x_2 + \beta_3 x_{3t} + u_t$

What is the appropriate critical value for a 2-sided 5% size of test of $H_0: \beta_3 = 1$?

Choices:
- 1.64
- 1.71
- 2.06
- 1.96


econometrics

Question:
Which of the following are advantages of the VAR approach to modelling the relationship between variables relative to the estimation of full structural models?

i) VARs receive strong motivation from financial and economic theory

ii) VARs in their reduced forms can be used easily to produce time-series forecasts

iii) VAR models are typically highly parsimonious

iv) OLS can be applied separately to each equation in a reduced form VAR

Choices:
- (ii) and (iv) only
- (i) and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)


econometrics

Question: A dependent variable whose values are not observable outside a certain range but where the corresponding values of the independent variables are still available would be most accurately described as what kind of variable?

Choices:
- Censored
- Truncated
- Multinomial variable
- Discrete choice


econometrics

Question: Which one of the following statements best describes a Type II error?

Choices:
- It is the probability of incorrectly rejecting the null hypothesis
- It is equivalent to the power of the test
- It is equivalent to the size of the test
- It is the probability of failing to reject a null hypothesis that was wrong


econometrics

Question:
Consider the following equation and determine the class of model that it best represents

$y_{it} = \alpha + \beta_{it} + \mu_i + \nu_{it}$

Choices:
- An entity fixed effects model
- A time fixed effects model
- A random effects model
- A pure time series model


econometrics

Question:
Which of the following statements are true concerning a triangular or recursive system?

i) The parameters can be validly estimated using separate applications of OLS to

each equation

ii) The independent variables may be correlated with the error terms in other

equations

iii) An application of 2SLS would lead to unbiased but inefficient parameter estimates

iv) The independent variables may be correlated with the error terms in the equations

in which they appear as independent variables

Choices:
- (ii) and (iv) only
- (i) and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)


econometrics

Question: Which one of the following statements best describes the algebraic representation of the fitted regression line?

Choices:
- \\hat{y}_t = \\hat{\\alpha} + \\hat{\\beta}x_t + \\hat{u}_t
- \\hat{y}_t = \\hat{\\alpha} + \\hat{\\beta}x_t
- \\hat{y}_t = \\hat{\\alpha} + \\hat{\\beta}x_t + u_t
- y_t = \\hat{\\alpha} + \\hat{\\beta}x_t + \\hat{u}_t


econometrics

Question: What is the meaning of the term "heteroscedasticity"?

Choices:
- The variance of the errors is not constant
- The variance of the dependent variable is not constant
- The errors are not linearly independent of one another
- The errors have non-zero mean


econometrics

Question: If the standard tools for time-series analysis, such as estimation of the acf, pacf and spectral analysis, find no evidence of structure in the data, this implies that the data are which of the following?

Choices:
- Normally distributed
- Uncorrelated
- Independent
- Fat-tailed


econometrics

Question: Which one of the following would be a plausible response to a finding of residual non-normality?

Choices:
- Use a logarithmic functional form instead of a linear one
- Add lags of the variables on the right hand side of the regression model
- Estimate the model in first differenced form
- Remove any large outliers from the data.


econometrics

Question: Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning OLS estimation?

Choices:
- OLS minimises the sum of the vertical distances from the points to the line
- OLS minimises the sum of the squares of the vertical distances from the points to the line
- OLS minimises the sum of the horizontal distances from the points to the line
- OLS minimises the sum of the squares of the horizontal distances from the points to the line.


econometrics

Question: Which of the following is NOT a feature of continuously compounded returns (i.e. log-returns)?

Choices:
- They can be interpreted as continuously compounded changes in the prices
- They can be added over time to give returns for longer time periods
- They can be added across a portfolio of assets to give portfolio returns
- They are usually fat-tailed


econometrics

Question:
Which of the following are plausible approaches to dealing with residual autocorrelation?

i) Take logarithms of each of the variables

ii) Add lagged values of the variables to the regression equation

iii) Use dummy variables to remove outlying observations

iv) Try a model in first differenced form rather than in levels.

Choices:
- (ii) and (iv) only
- (i) and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)


econometrics

Question: Which of the following is an equivalent expression for saying that the explanatory variable is "non-stochastic"?

Choices:
- The explanatory variable is partly random
- The explanatory variable is fixed in repeated samples
- The explanatory variable is correlated with the errors
- The explanatory variable always has a value of one


econometrics

Question: Which of the following statements concerning the regression population and sample is FALSE?

Choices:
- The population is the total collection of all items of interest
- The population can be infinite
- In theory, the sample could be larger than the population
- A random sample is one where each individual item from the population is equally likely to be drawn.


econometrics

Question: If a series, y, follows a random walk with drift b, what is the optimal one-step ahead forecast of the change in y?

Choices:
- The current value of y
- Zero
- One
- The average value of the change in y over the in-sample period


econometrics

Question: Suppose that the Durbin Watson test is applied to a regression containing two explanatory variables plus a constant with 50 data points. The test statistic takes a value of 1.53. What is the appropriate conclusion?

Choices:
- Residuals appear to be positively autocorrelated
- Residuals appear to be negatively autocorrelated
- Residuals appear not to be autocorrelated
- The test result is inconclusive


econometrics

Question: For an autoregressive process to be considered stationary

Choices:
- The roots of the characteristic equation must all lie inside the unit circle
- The roots of the characteristic equation must all lie on the unit circle
- The roots of the characteristic equation must all lie outside the unit circle
- The roots of the characteristic equation must all be less than one in absolute value


econometrics

Question:
Which of the following assumptions are required to show the consistency, unbiasedness and efficiency of the OLS estimator?

i) $E(u_t) = 0$

ii) $\text{Var}(u_t) = \sigma^2$

iii) $\text{Cov}(u_t, u_{t-j}) = 0 \forall j$

iv) $u_t \sim N(0, \sigma^2)$

Choices:
- (ii) and (iv) only
- (i) and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)


econometrics

Question: Which one of the following would be the most appropriate as a 95% (two-sided) confidence interval for the intercept term of the model given in question 21?

Choices:
- (-4.79,2.19)
- (-4.16,4.16)
- (-1.98,1.98)
- (-5.46,2.86)


econometrics

Question:
Which of the following statements are correct concerning the use of antithetic variates as part of a Monte Carlo experiment?

i) Antithetic variates work by reducing the number of replications required to cover the whole probability space

ii) Antithetic variates involve employing a similar variable to that used in the simulation, but whose properties are known analytically

iii) Antithetic variates involve using the negative of each of the random draws and repeating the experiment using those values as the draws

iv) Antithetic variates involve taking one over each of the random draws and repeating the experiment using those values as the draws

Choices:
- (ii) and (iv) only
- (i) and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), and (iv) only
- (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)


econometrics

Question: Which of the following statements is INCORRECT concerning a comparison of the Box-Pierce Q and the Ljung-Box Q* statistics for linear dependence in time series?

Choices:
- Asymptotically, the values of the two test statistics will be equal
- The Q test has better small-sample properties than the Q*
- The Q test is sometimes over-sized for small samples
- As the sample size tends towards infinity, both tests will show a tendency to always reject the null hypothesis of zero autocorrelation coefficients.


econometrics

Question: Including relevant lagged values of the dependent variable on the right hand side of a regression equation could lead to which one of the following?

Choices:
- Biased but consistent coefficient estimates
- Biased and inconsistent coefficient estimates
- Unbiased but inconsistent coefficient estimates
- Unbiased and consistent but inefficient coefficient estimates.


econometrics

Question:
Which of the following statements are true concerning the autocorrelation function (acf) and partial autocorrelation function (pacf)?

i) The acf and pacf will always be identical at lag one whatever the model

ii) The pacf for an MA(q) model will in general be non-zero beyond lag q

iii) The pacf for an AR(p) model will be zero beyond lag p

iv) The acf and pacf will be the same at lag two for an MA(1) model

Choices:
- (ii) and (iv) only
- (i) and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)


econometrics

Question:
Which of the following are alternative names for the dependent variable (usually denoted by y) in linear regression analysis?

(i) The regressand

(ii) The regressor

(iii) The explained variable

(iv) The explanatory variable

Choices:
- (ii) and (iv) only
- (i) and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)


econometrics

Question:
A researcher tests for structural stability in the following regression model:

$y_t = \beta_1 + \beta_2 x_{2t} + \beta_3 x_{3t} + u_t$

The total sample of 200 observations is split exactly in half for the sub-sample regressions. Which would be the unrestricted residual sum of squares?

Choices:
- The RSS for the whole sample
- The RSS for the first sub-sample
- The RSS for the second sub-sample
- The sum of the RSS for the first and second sub-samples


econometrics

Question: Which one of the following statements is true concerning alternative forecast accuracy measures?

Choices:
- Mean squared error is usually highly correlated with trading rule profitability
- Mean absolute error provides a quadratic loss function
- Mean absolute percentage error is a useful measure for evaluating asset return forecasts
- Mean squared error penalises large forecast errors disproportionately more than small forecast errors


econometrics

Question: What will be the properties of the OLS estimator in the presence of multicollinearity?

Choices:
- It will be consistent, unbiased and efficient
- It will be consistent and unbiased but not efficient
- It will be consistent but not unbiased
- It will not be consistent


econometrics

Question: What is the main difference between the Dickey Fuller (DF) and Phillips-Perron (PP) approaches to unit root testing?

Choices:
- ADF is a single equation approach to unit root testing while PP is a systems approach
- PP tests reverse the DF null and alternative hypotheses so that there is stationarity under the null hypothesis of the PP test
- The PP test incorporates an automatic correction for autocorrelated residuals in the test regression
- PP tests have good power in small samples whereas DF tests do not.


econometrics

Question: The order condition is

Choices:
- A necessary and sufficient condition for identification
- A necessary but not sufficient condition for identification
- A sufficient but not necessary condition for identification
- A condition that is nether necessary nor sufficient for identification


econometrics

Question: Consider an identical situation to that of question 21, except that now a 2-sided alternative is used. What would now be the appropriate conclusion?

Choices:
- H0 is rejected
- H0 is not rejected
- H1 is rejected
- There is insufficient information given in the question to reach a conclusion


econometrics

Question:
Which of the following statements is true concerning variance decomposition analysis of VARs?

i) Variance decompositions measure the impact of a unit shock to each of the variables on the VAR

ii) Variance decompositions can be thought of as measuring the proportion of the forecast error variance that is attributable to each variable

iii) The ordering of the variables is important for calculating impulse responses but not variance decompositions

iv) It is usual that most of the forecast error variance for a given variable is attributable to shocks to that variable

Choices:
- (ii) and (iv) only
- (i) and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), and (iii) only
- (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)


econometrics

Question: The price of a house is best described as what type of number?

Choices:
- Discrete
- Cardinal
- Ordinal
- Nominal