Context: The University of Warsaw was established in 1816, when the partitions of Poland separated Warsaw from the oldest and most influential Polish academic center, in Kraków. Warsaw University of Technology is the second academic school of technology in the country, and one of the largest in East-Central Europe, employing 2,000 professors. Other institutions for higher education include the Medical University of Warsaw, the largest medical school in Poland and one of the most prestigious, the National Defence University, highest military academic institution in Poland, the Fryderyk Chopin University of Music the oldest and largest music school in Poland, and one of the largest in Europe, the Warsaw School of Economics, the oldest and most renowned economic university in the country, and the Warsaw University of Life Sciences the largest agricultural university founded in 1818.

Question: What is the second academic school of technology in Poland?

Question: How many professors does the Warsaw University of Technology employ?

Question: What is the largest medical school in Poland?

Question: What year was the University of Warsaw established?

Question: What is one of the largest music schools in Europe?


Context: The origin of the legendary figure is not fully known. The best-known legend, by Artur Oppman, is that long ago two of Triton's daughters set out on a journey through the depths of the oceans and seas. One of them decided to stay on the coast of Denmark and can be seen sitting at the entrance to the port of Copenhagen. The second mermaid reached the mouth of the Vistula River and plunged into its waters. She stopped to rest on a sandy beach by the village of Warszowa, where fishermen came to admire her beauty and listen to her beautiful voice. A greedy merchant also heard her songs; he followed the fishermen and captured the mermaid.

Question: What did Artur Oppman give to the world?

Question: Where did two of Triton's daughters set out on a journey through?

Question: Where did one of Triton's daughters decide she wanted to hang out and stay?

Question: A mermaid stopped to rest on the sandy beach by what village?

Question: What did a greedy merchant do to the mermaid?


Context: Tamara de Lempicka was a famous artist born in Warsaw. She was born Maria Górska in Warsaw to wealthy parents and in 1916 married a Polish lawyer Tadeusz Łempicki. Better than anyone else she represented the Art Deco style in painting and art. Nathan Alterman, the Israeli poet, was born in Warsaw, as was Moshe Vilenski, the Israeli composer, lyricist, and pianist, who studied music at the Warsaw Conservatory. Warsaw was the beloved city of Isaac Bashevis Singer, which he described in many of his novels: Warsaw has just now been destroyed. No one will ever see the Warsaw I knew. Let me just write about it. Let this Warsaw not disappear forever, he commented.

Question: Where was the famous artist Tamara de Lempicka born?

Question: When did Tamara marry a lawyer?

Question: What did Lempicka represent better than anyone else?

Question: What profession was Nathan Alterman?

Question: Who loved Warsaw so much that he kept putting it in his novels?


Context: In 1529, Warsaw for the first time became the seat of the General Sejm, permanent from 1569. In 1573 the city gave its name to the Warsaw Confederation, formally establishing religious freedom in the Polish–Lithuanian Commonwealth. Due to its central location between the Commonwealth's capitals of Kraków and Vilnius, Warsaw became the capital of the Commonwealth and the Crown of the Kingdom of Poland when King Sigismund III Vasa moved his court from Kraków to Warsaw in 1596. In the following years the town expanded towards the suburbs. Several private independent districts were established, the property of aristocrats and the gentry, which were ruled by their own laws. Three times between 1655–1658 the city was under siege and three times it was taken and pillaged by the Swedish, Brandenburgian and Transylvanian forces.

Question: Who did Warsaw serve as the seat for in 1529?

Question: When did the General Sejm make Warsaw it's permanent seat?

Question: What did the Warsaw Confederation formally establish in 1573?

Question: Why did Warsaw become the capital of the Commonwealth?

Question: What year did King Sigismund III Vasa move his court to Warsaw?


Context: After the German Invasion of Poland on 1 September 1939 began the Second World War, Warsaw was defended till September 27. Central Poland, including Warsaw, came under the rule of the General Government, a German Nazi colonial administration. All higher education institutions were immediately closed and Warsaw's entire Jewish population – several hundred thousand, some 30% of the city – herded into the Warsaw Ghetto. The city would become the centre of urban resistance to Nazi rule in occupied Europe. When the order came to annihilate the ghetto as part of Hitler's "Final Solution" on 19 April 1943, Jewish fighters launched the Warsaw Ghetto Uprising. Despite being heavily outgunned and outnumbered, the Ghetto held out for almost a month. When the fighting ended, almost all survivors were massacred, with only a few managing to escape or hide.

Question: When did Germany invade Poland and in doing so start World War II?

Question: Who was Warsaw under the administration of when it came under the rule of the General Goverment?

Question: How much of Warsaw's population was Jewish?

Question: When did Hitler order the annihilation of the Warsaw Ghetto?

Question: How long were the fighters of the Warsaw Ghetto Uprising able to hold out?


Context: Throughout its existence, Warsaw has been a multi-cultural city. According to the 1901 census, out of 711,988 inhabitants 56.2% were Catholics, 35.7% Jews, 5% Greek orthodox Christians and 2.8% Protestants. Eight years later, in 1909, there were 281,754 Jews (36.9%), 18,189 Protestants (2.4%) and 2,818 Mariavites (0.4%). This led to construction of hundreds of places of religious worship in all parts of the town. Most of them were destroyed in the aftermath of the Warsaw Uprising of 1944. After the war, the new communist authorities of Poland discouraged church construction and only a small number were rebuilt.

Question: What type of city has Warsaw been for as long as it's been a city?

Question: What was Warsaw's population in 1901?

Question: Of Warsaw's inhabitants in 1901, what percentage was Catholic?

Question: What percentage of Warsaw's population was Protestant in 1901?

Question: When were most of the places of religious worship destroyed in Warsaw?


Context: The mayor of Warsaw is called President. Generally, in Poland, the mayors of bigger cities are called presidents – i.e. such cities, which have over 100,000 people or these, where already was president before 1990. The first Warsaw President was Jan Andrzej Menich (1695–1696). Between 1975 and 1990 the Warsaw Presidents was simultaneously the Warsaw Voivode. Since 1990 the President of Warsaw had been elected by the City council. In the years of 1994–1999 the mayor of the district Centrum automatically was designated as the President of Warsaw: the mayor of Centrum was elected by the district council of Centrum and the council was elected only by the Centrum residents. Since 2002 the President of Warsaw is elected by all of the citizens of Warsaw.

Question: What is the mayor of Warsaw called?

Question: Who was the first Warsaw President?

Question: When did Menich serve as President?

Question: Who has elected the President of Warsaw since 1990?

Question: What district of Warsaw chose the President between 1994 and 1999?


Context: In 1898, Tesla demonstrated a radio-controlled boat—which he dubbed "teleautomaton"—to the public during an electrical exhibition at Madison Square Garden. The crowd that witnessed the demonstration made outrageous claims about the workings of the boat, such as magic, telepathy, and being piloted by a trained monkey hidden inside. Tesla tried to sell his idea to the U.S. military as a type of radio-controlled torpedo, but they showed little interest. Remote radio control remained a novelty until World War I and afterward, when a number of countries used it in military programs. Tesla took the opportunity to further demonstrate "Teleautomatics" in an address to a meeting of the Commercial Club in Chicago, while he was travelling to Colorado Springs, on 13 May 1899.

Question: When did Tesla give a demonstration of his remote control boat?

Question: What was the boat called?

Question: Where was the boat demonstration given?

Question: What was the occasion for the boat demonstration?

Question: What type of animal did onlookers claim was piloting the boat?


Context: Tesla invented a steam-powered mechanical oscillator—Tesla's oscillator. While experimenting with mechanical oscillators at his Houston Street lab, Tesla allegedly generated a resonance of several buildings. As the speed grew, it is said that the machine oscillated at the resonance frequency of his own building and, belatedly realizing the danger, he was forced to use a sledge hammer to terminate the experiment, just as the police arrived.:162–164 In February 1912, an article—"Nikola Tesla, Dreamer" by Allan L. Benson—was published in World Today, in which an artist's illustration appears showing the entire earth cracking in half with the caption, "Tesla claims that in a few weeks he could set the earth's crust into such a state of vibration that it would rise and fall hundreds of feet and practically destroy civilization. A continuation of this process would, he says, eventually split the earth in two."

Question: How was Tesla's mechanical oscillator powered?

Question: Where did he work on the oscillators?

Question: What unforeseen problem caused Tesla to hit his experiment with a sledgehammer?

Question: What publication published an article about Tesla in 1912?

Question: What did Tesla claim his resonant frequencies could do in the World Today article?


Context: Later in life, Tesla made claims concerning a "teleforce" weapon after studying the Van de Graaff generator. The press variably referred to it as a "peace ray" or death ray. Tesla described the weapon as capable of being used against ground-based infantry or for anti-aircraft purposes.

Question: What kind of weapon did Tesla talk about?

Question: What was he studying that gave him the teleforce weapon idea?

Question: What ground based group did Tesla think the weapon could be used on?

Question: What was another use for the weapon?

Question: Other than a peace-ray, what did reporters call the weapon?


Context: In 1937, at a luncheon in his honor concerning the death ray, Tesla stated, "But it is not an experiment ... I have built, demonstrated and used it. Only a little time will pass before I can give it to the world." His records indicate that the device is based on a narrow stream of small tungsten pellets that are accelerated via high voltage (by means akin to his magnifying transformer).

Question: When did Tesla claim to have built the weapon?

Question: What was the occasion when he claimed he'd made the death ray?

Question: Of what material were the death rays pellets made?

Question: What was used to accelerate the tungsten pellets?

Question: How much time did he claim had to pass before he gave the ray to the world?


Context: During his second year of study at Graz, Tesla developed a passion for (and became very proficient at) billiards, chess and card-playing, sometimes spending more than 48 hours in a stretch at a gaming table.:43, 301 On one occasion at his laboratory, Tesla worked for a period of 84 hours without sleep or rest.:208 Kenneth Swezey, a journalist whom Tesla had befriended, confirmed that Tesla rarely slept. Swezey recalled one morning when Tesla called him at 3 a.m.: "I was sleeping in my room like one dead ... Suddenly, the telephone ring awakened me ... [Tesla] spoke animatedly, with pauses, [as he] ... work[ed] out a problem, comparing one theory to another, commenting; and when he felt he had arrived at the solution, he suddenly closed the telephone."

Question: How long would Tesla spend gambling sometimes?

Question: What amount of time was the longest that Tesla spent working without stopping to rest?

Question: Where was Tesla studying when he started playing cards and billiards?

Question: Who did Tesla call in the middle of the night?

Question: What was Kenneth Swezey's job?


Context: On Tesla's 75th birthday in 1931, Time magazine put him on its cover. The cover caption "All the world's his power house" noted his contribution to electrical power generation. He received congratulatory letters from more than 70 pioneers in science and engineering, including Albert Einstein.

Question: On which magazine's cover did Tesla appear in 1931

Question: For what occasion was he put on the cover?

Question: To which technology type that Tesla worked on did the caption refer to?

Question: What famous person congratulated him?

Question: How many other important people sent letters?


Context: Analogous definitions can be made for space requirements. Although time and space are the most well-known complexity resources, any complexity measure can be viewed as a computational resource. Complexity measures are very generally defined by the Blum complexity axioms. Other complexity measures used in complexity theory include communication complexity, circuit complexity, and decision tree complexity.

Question: Time and space are both examples of what type of resource?

Question: A complexity resource can also be described as what other type of resource?

Question: What is typically used to broadly define complexity measures?

Question: Communication complexity is an example of what type of measure?

Question: Decision tree is an example of what type of measure?


Context: The complexity class P is often seen as a mathematical abstraction modeling those computational tasks that admit an efficient algorithm. This hypothesis is called the Cobham–Edmonds thesis. The complexity class NP, on the other hand, contains many problems that people would like to solve efficiently, but for which no efficient algorithm is known, such as the Boolean satisfiability problem, the Hamiltonian path problem and the vertex cover problem. Since deterministic Turing machines are special non-deterministic Turing machines, it is easily observed that each problem in P is also member of the class NP.

Question: What complexity class is characterized by a computational tasks and efficient algorithms?

Question: What hypothesis is associated with the complexity class of P viewed as a mathematical abstraction with efficient algorithmic functionality?

Question: What complexity class is commonly characterized by unknown algorithms to enhance solvability?

Question: What is an example of a problem that rests within the NP complexity class?

Question: In what theoretical machine is it confirmed that a problem in P belies membership in the NP class?


Context: Before the actual research explicitly devoted to the complexity of algorithmic problems started off, numerous foundations were laid out by various researchers. Most influential among these was the definition of Turing machines by Alan Turing in 1936, which turned out to be a very robust and flexible simplification of a computer.

Question: What tactic did researchers employ to offset the former deficit of work surrounding the complexity of algorithmic problems?

Question: Who was the most influential researcher among those grappling with the deficit of work surrounding the complexity posed by algorithmic problems?

Question: What theoretical device is attributed to Alan Turing?

Question: In what year was the Alan Turing's definitional model of a computing device received?

Question: In the most basic sense what did a Turing machine emulate?


Context: Teaching using pedagogy also involve assessing the educational levels of the students on particular skills. Understanding the pedagogy of the students in a classroom involves using differentiated instruction as well as supervision to meet the needs of all students in the classroom. Pedagogy can be thought of in two manners. First, teaching itself can be taught in many different ways, hence, using a pedagogy of teaching styles. Second, the pedagogy of the learners comes into play when a teacher assesses the pedagogic diversity of his/her students and differentiates for the individual students accordingly. For example, an experienced teacher and parent described the place of a teacher in learning as follows: "The real bulk of learning takes place in self-study and problem solving with a lot of feedback around that loop. The function of the teacher is to pressure the lazy, inspire the bored, deflate the cocky, encourage the timid, detect and correct individual flaws, and broaden the viewpoint of all. This function looks like that of a coach using the whole gamut of psychology to get each new class of rookies off the bench and into the game."

Question: What would a teacher assess the levels of a student on?

Question: In what areas does most of the learning take place?

Question: What would a teacher do for someone who is timid?

Question: What would a teacher do for someone who is cocky?

Question: What function is a teacher's role similar to?


Context: Where school class sizes are typically 40 to 50 students, maintaining order in the classroom can divert the teacher from instruction, leaving little opportunity for concentration and focus on what is being taught. In response, teachers may concentrate their attention on motivated students, ignoring attention-seeking and disruptive students. The result of this is that motivated students, facing demanding university entrance examinations, receive disproportionate resources. Given the emphasis on attainment of university places, administrators and governors may regard this policy as appropriate.

Question: What class sizes can make keeping order difficult?

Question: If the teacher focuses on maintaining order, what does this take time away from?

Question: Who may teachers focus on, in order to prioritize attention?

Question: Who may teachers ignore, in order to prioritize attention?

Question: Who ends up getting more of the teacher's resources in this scenario?


Context: Misconduct by teachers, especially sexual misconduct, has been getting increased scrutiny from the media and the courts. A study by the American Association of University Women reported that 9.6% of students in the United States claim to have received unwanted sexual attention from an adult associated with education; be they a volunteer, bus driver, teacher, administrator or other adult; sometime during their educational career.

Question: What is the largest type of misconduct being reviewed by the media?

Question: How many students have received unwanted sexual attention from a teacher or other education figure?

Question: What country is this statistic for?

Question: What is the time period of this statistic?

Question: Who conducted this survey?


Context: A 2000 study found that 42% of UK teachers experienced occupational stress, twice the figure for the average profession. A 2012 study found that teachers experienced double the rate of anxiety, depression, and stress than average workers.

Question: How many teachers were found to have felt occupational stress in a 2000 study?

Question: Where was the 2000 study conducted?

Question: How much higher was the 42% occupation stress figure, compared to other jobs?

Question: Which study showed double the rate of anxiety?

Question: The 2012 study showed teachers experienced more stress than whom?


Context: Education in Australia is primarily the responsibility of the individual states and territories. Generally, education in Australia follows the three-tier model which includes primary education (primary schools), followed by secondary education (secondary schools/high schools) and tertiary education (universities and/or TAFE colleges).

Question: Who is responsible for education in the country of Australia?

Question: How many tiers are in the Australian form of learning?

Question: What follows secondary education?

Question: What is tertiary education?

Question: What is the first model of education, in the Australian system?


Context: Teachers in Wales can be registered members of trade unions such as ATL, NUT or NASUWT and reports in recent years suggest that the average age of teachers in Wales is falling with teachers being younger than in previous years. A growing cause of concern are that attacks on teachers in Welsh schools which reached an all-time high between 2005 and 2010.

Question: What group can teachers in Wales register with?

Question: What is happening to the average age of teachers in Wales?

Question: When were attacks on teachers the highest?

Question: What is the NASUWT?

Question: What are the attacks on teachers causing?


Context: In the United States, each state determines the requirements for getting a license to teach in public schools. Teaching certification generally lasts three years, but teachers can receive certificates that last as long as ten years. Public school teachers are required to have a bachelor's degree and the majority must be certified by the state in which they teach. Many charter schools do not require that their teachers be certified, provided they meet the standards to be highly qualified as set by No Child Left Behind. Additionally, the requirements for substitute/temporary teachers are generally not as rigorous as those for full-time professionals. The Bureau of Labor Statistics estimates that there are 1.4 million elementary school teachers, 674,000 middle school teachers, and 1 million secondary school teachers employed in the U.S.

Question: In the US, who decides on the requirements for teachers?

Question: What is the longest time that a teaching certificate is good for?

Question: What must a public school teacher have, at a minimum?

Question: Who may not require that its teachers be certified?

Question: What may a Charter school require that their teachers meet the standards to be highly qualified by?


Context: In 1501, at the age of 19, he entered the University of Erfurt, which he later described as a beerhouse and whorehouse. He was made to wake at four every morning for what has been described as "a day of rote learning and often wearying spiritual exercises." He received his master's degree in 1505.

Question: Where did Martin Luther go to school?

Question: How did Luther describe the University of Erfurt?

Question: How early did Luther say he had to awaken every day?

Question: How did Luther describe his learning at the university?

Question: In what year did Luther get his degree?


Context: In accordance with his father's wishes, Luther enrolled in law school at the same university that year but dropped out almost immediately, believing that law represented uncertainty. Luther sought assurances about life and was drawn to theology and philosophy, expressing particular interest in Aristotle, William of Ockham, and Gabriel Biel. He was deeply influenced by two tutors, Bartholomaeus Arnoldi von Usingen and Jodocus Trutfetter, who taught him to be suspicious of even the greatest thinkers and to test everything himself by experience. Philosophy proved to be unsatisfying, offering assurance about the use of reason but none about loving God, which to Luther was more important. Reason could not lead men to God, he felt, and he thereafter developed a love-hate relationship with Aristotle over the latter's emphasis on reason. For Luther, reason could be used to question men and institutions, but not God. Human beings could learn about God only through divine revelation, he believed, and Scripture therefore became increasingly important to him.

Question: What educational study did Luther start to pursue and immediately  drop?

Question: What did Luther think the study of law meant?

Question: What fields of study did Martin Luther prefer?

Question: How did Luther's tutors advise him to test what he learned?

Question: What did Luther think reason could not be used to test?


Context: The effect of Luther's intervention was immediate. After the sixth sermon, the Wittenberg jurist Jerome Schurf wrote to the elector: "Oh, what joy has Dr. Martin's return spread among us! His words, through divine mercy, are bringing back every day misguided people into the way of the truth."

Question: How quick was the effect of Luther's preaching?

Question: Who wrote a resounding letter to the elector praising Luther?

Question: At what point in Luther's sermons did Schurf write to the elector?

Question: What did Schurf's letter say  Luther's return caused?

Question: What type of people were being brought back to the way of truth?


Context: Luther next set about reversing or modifying the new church practices. By working alongside the authorities to restore public order, he signalled his reinvention as a conservative force within the Reformation. After banishing the Zwickau prophets, he now faced a battle against not only the established Church but also the radical reformers who threatened the new order by fomenting social unrest and violence.

Question: What did Luther seek to restore?

Question: What was Luther's force within the Reformation?

Question: Who did Luther banish?

Question: What did the radical reformers cause in the new order?

Question: Besides the radicals who else did Luther have to deal with?


Context: Luther devised the catechism as a method of imparting the basics of Christianity to the congregations. In 1529, he wrote the Large Catechism, a manual for pastors and teachers, as well as a synopsis, the Small Catechism, to be memorised by the people themselves. The catechisms provided easy-to-understand instructional and devotional material on the Ten Commandments, the Apostles' Creed, the Lord's Prayer, baptism, and the Lord's Supper. Luther incorporated questions and answers in the catechism so that the basics of Christian faith would not just be learned by rote, "the way monkeys do it", but understood.

Question: What did Luther devise to teach  Christianity to the congregation?

Question: When did Luther write the Large Catechism?

Question: To whom was the Large Catechism directed?

Question: For whom was the Small Catechism meant?

Question: What did Luther add to his catechisms?


Context: Luther wrote "Aus tiefer Not schrei ich zu dir" ("From depths of woe I cry to you") in 1523 as a hymnic version of Psalm 130 and sent it as a sample to encourage evangelical colleagues to write psalm-hymns for use in German worship. In a collaboration with Paul Speratus, this and seven other hymns were published in the Achtliederbuch, the first Lutheran hymnal. In 1524 Luther developed his original four-stanza psalm paraphrase into a five-stanza Reformation hymn that developed the theme of "grace alone" more fully. Because it expressed essential Reformation doctrine, this expanded version of "Aus tiefer Not" was designated as a regular component of several regional Lutheran liturgies and was widely used at funerals, including Luther's own. Along with Erhart Hegenwalt's hymnic version of Psalm 51, Luther's expanded hymn was also adopted for use with the fifth part of Luther's catechism, concerning confession.

Question: When did Luther write the hymn From Depths of Woe I cry to You?

Question: What is the basis of the hymn?

Question: What did Luther use the hymn to encourage colleagues to do?

Question: What was the first Lutheran hymnal?

Question: What did the hymn, Aus tiefer Not express?


Context: Luther wrote "Ach Gott, vom Himmel sieh darein" ("Oh God, look down from heaven"). "Nun komm, der Heiden Heiland" (Now come, Savior of the gentiles), based on Veni redemptor gentium, became the main hymn (Hauptlied) for Advent. He transformed A solus ortus cardine to "Christum wir sollen loben schon" ("We should now praise Christ") and Veni Creator Spiritus to "Komm, Gott Schöpfer, Heiliger Geist" ("Come, Holy Spirit, Lord God"). He wrote two hymns on the Ten Commandments, "Dies sind die heilgen Zehn Gebot" and "Mensch, willst du leben seliglich". His "Gelobet seist du, Jesu Christ" ("Praise be to You, Jesus Christ") became the main hymn for Christmas. He wrote for Pentecost "Nun bitten wir den Heiligen Geist", and adopted for Easter "Christ ist erstanden" (Christ is risen), based on Victimae paschali laudes. "Mit Fried und Freud ich fahr dahin", a paraphrase of Nunc dimittis, was intended for Purification, but became also a funeral hymn. He paraphrased the Te Deum as "Herr Gott, dich loben wir" with a simplified form of the melody. It became known as the German Te Deum.

Question: Which of Luther's hymn was the main one for Advent?

Question: What was the hymn based on?

Question: What is a Hauptlied?

Question: How many hymns did Luther write based on the Ten Commandments?

Question: What did Herr Gott, dich loben wir become known as ?


Context: Luther spoke out against the Jews in Saxony, Brandenburg, and Silesia. Josel of Rosheim, the Jewish spokesman who tried to help the Jews of Saxony in 1537, later blamed their plight on "that priest whose name was Martin Luther—may his body and soul be bound up in hell!—who wrote and issued many heretical books in which he said that whoever would help the Jews was doomed to perdition." Josel asked the city of Strasbourg to forbid the sale of Luther's anti-Jewish works: they refused initially, but did so when a Lutheran pastor in Hochfelden used a sermon to urge his parishioners to murder Jews. Luther's influence persisted after his death. Throughout the 1580s, riots led to the expulsion of Jews from several German Lutheran states.

Question: What did Luther speak out about in Saxony?

Question: Who did Josel of Rosheim blame for the condition of Jews in Saxony?

Question: What did Josel of Rosheim claimed that Luther said of those who might aid the Jews?

Question: What did Josel ask the city of Strasbourg to forbid the sale of?

Question: When did riots cause the expulsion of Jews from several German states?


Context: On 17 December 1941, seven Protestant regional church confederations issued a statement agreeing with the policy of forcing Jews to wear the yellow badge, "since after his bitter experience Luther had already suggested preventive measures against the Jews and their expulsion from German territory." According to Daniel Goldhagen, Bishop Martin Sasse, a leading Protestant churchman, published a compendium of Luther's writings shortly after Kristallnacht, for which Diarmaid MacCulloch, Professor of the History of the Church in the University of Oxford argued that Luther's writing was a "blueprint." Sasse applauded the burning of the synagogues and the coincidence of the day, writing in the introduction, "On 10 November 1938, on Luther's birthday, the synagogues are burning in Germany." The German people, he urged, ought to heed these words "of the greatest antisemite of his time, the warner of his people against the Jews."

Question: When did seven Protestant churches agree with the Nazi policy of forcing Jews to wear yellow arm bands?

Question: Who did the churches claim had suggested expulsion of Jews from Germany?

Question: Who claimed Luther's writings were a blueprint of actions against Jews?

Question: Who agreed with the burning of synagogues?

Question: What did Sasse proclaim Luther to be?


Context: At the heart of scholars' debate about Luther's influence is whether it is anachronistic to view his work as a precursor of the racial antisemitism of the Nazis. Some scholars see Luther's influence as limited, and the Nazis' use of his work as opportunistic. Biographer Martin Brecht points out that "There is a world of difference between his belief in salvation and a racial ideology. Nevertheless, his misguided agitation had the evil result that Luther fatefully became one of the 'church fathers' of anti-Semitism and thus provided material for the modern hatred of the Jews, cloaking it with the authority of the Reformer." Johannes Wallmann argues that Luther's writings against the Jews were largely ignored in the 18th and 19th centuries, and that there was no continuity between Luther's thought and Nazi ideology. Uwe Siemon-Netto agreed, arguing that it was because the Nazis were already anti-Semites that they revived Luther's work. Hans J. Hillerbrand agreed that to focus on Luther was to adopt an essentially ahistorical perspective of Nazi antisemitism that ignored other contributory factors in German history. Similarly, Roland Bainton, noted church historian and Luther biographer, wrote "One could wish that Luther had died before ever [On the Jews and Their Lies] was written. His position was entirely religious and in no respect racial."

Question: How do some scholars view the Nazi use of Luther's work?

Question: What did Martin Brecht call Luther's stand on the Jews?

Question: What did this agitation provide later generations material for?

Question: When was Luther's writings about the Jews ignored, according to Johannes Wallmann?

Question: What did Roland Bainton say about Luther's position on Jews?


Context: Luther had been suffering from ill health for years, including Ménière's disease, vertigo, fainting, tinnitus, and a cataract in one eye. From 1531 to 1546, his health deteriorated further. The years of struggle with Rome, the antagonisms with and among his fellow reformers, and the scandal which ensued from the bigamy of the Philip of Hesse incident, in which Luther had played a leading role, all may have contributed. In 1536, he began to suffer from kidney and bladder stones, and arthritis, and an ear infection ruptured an ear drum. In December 1544, he began to feel the effects of angina.

Question: How was Luther's health for the years of 1531 to 1546?

Question: Besides the arguments with Rome and his own fellow reformers, what scandal  contributed to Luther's failing health?

Question: What did Luther begin to experience in 1536?

Question: What other health issues did Luther have?

Question: By 1544 what did Luther have to deal with in his health?


Context: Luther's final journey, to Mansfeld, was taken because of his concern for his siblings' families continuing in their father Hans Luther's copper mining trade. Their livelihood was threatened by Count Albrecht of Mansfeld bringing the industry under his own control. The controversy that ensued involved all four Mansfeld counts: Albrecht, Philip, John George, and Gerhard. Luther journeyed to Mansfeld twice in late 1545 to participate in the negotiations for a settlement, and a third visit was needed in early 1546 for their completion.

Question: To where was Luther's final journey?

Question: What was Luther involved in dealing with the minds in Mansfeld?

Question: When did Luther travel to Mansfeld twice?

Question: When was a third visit to Mnafeld scheduled?

Question: For whom was Luther concerned about in Mansfeld?


Context: An apoplectic stroke deprived him of his speech, and he died shortly afterwards at 2:45 a.m. on 18 February 1546, aged 62, in Eisleben, the city of his birth. He was buried in the Castle Church in Wittenberg, beneath the pulpit. The funeral was held by his friends Johannes Bugenhagen and Philipp Melanchthon. A year later, troops of Luther's adversary Charles V, Holy Roman Emperor entered the town, but were ordered by Charles not to disturb the grave.

Question: What event took away his ability of speech?

Question: At what time did Martin Luther die?

Question: On what date did Luther die?

Question: Where was Luther buried?

Question: Who performed the funeral for Martin Luther?


Context: Luther is honoured on 18 February with a commemoration in the Lutheran Calendar of Saints and in the Episcopal (United States) Calendar of Saints. In the Church of England's Calendar of Saints he is commemorated on 31 October.

Question: When is Luther commemorated in the Lutheran Calendar of Saints ?

Question: On what other calendar is Luther commemorated?

Question: When is Luther commemorated by the Church of England?

Question: On what English calendar is Luther commemorated?

Question: How is Luther commemorated on the Lutheran, Episcopal, and  Church of England  calendars?


Context: The state is most commonly divided and promoted by its regional tourism groups as consisting of northern, central, and southern California regions. The two AAA Auto Clubs of the state, the California State Automobile Association and the Automobile Club of Southern California, choose to simplify matters by dividing the state along the lines where their jurisdictions for membership apply, as either northern or southern California, in contrast to the three-region point of view. Another influence is the geographical phrase South of the Tehachapis, which would split the southern region off at the crest of that transverse range, but in that definition, the desert portions of north Los Angeles County and eastern Kern and San Bernardino Counties would be included in the southern California region due to their remoteness from the central valley and interior desert landscape.

Question: Which organizations most commonly divide and promote the state?

Question: Other than the Automobile Club of Southern California, what other AAA Auto Club chose to simplify the divide?

Question: The two AAA clubs divided the state into a northern and southern California as opposed to what point of view?

Question: Which mountain range influenced the split of the regions?

Question: In the definition based off the mountain range, which region would the desert portions of north Los Angeles County be included in?


Context: Orange County is a rapidly developing business center that includes Downtown Santa Ana, the South Coast Metro and Newport Center districts; as well as the Irvine business centers of The Irvine Spectrum, West Irvine, and international corporations headquartered at the University of California, Irvine. West Irvine includes the Irvine Tech Center and Jamboree Business Parks.

Question: Which county is developing its business center?

Question: Where are international corporations headquartered?

Question: Jamboree Business Parks belongs to which business center?

Question: What other business district does Orange County envelop outside of Downtown Santa Ana and Newport Center?

Question: At what rate is Orange County developing its business centers?


Context: While BSkyB had been excluded from being a part of the ONdigital consortium, thereby making them a competitor by default, BSkyB was able to join ITV Digital's free-to-air replacement, Freeview, in which it holds an equal stake with the BBC, ITV, Channel 4 and National Grid Wireless. Prior to October 2005, three BSkyB channels were available on this platform: Sky News, Sky Three, and Sky Sports News. Initially BSkyB provided Sky Travel to the service. However, this was replaced by Sky Three on 31 October 2005, which was itself later re-branded as 'Pick TV' in 2011.

Question: What consortium was BSkyB excluded from?

Question: Who did BSkyB team up with because it was not part of the consortium?

Question: How many BSkyB channels were available to customers prior to October 2005?

Question: What channel replaced Sky Travel?

Question: What was Sky Travel later rebranded as?


Context: BSkyB launched its HDTV service, Sky+ HD, on 22 May 2006. Prior to its launch, BSkyB claimed that 40,000 people had registered to receive the HD service. In the week before the launch, rumours started to surface that BSkyB was having supply issues with its set top box (STB) from manufacturer Thomson. On Thursday 18 May 2006, and continuing through the weekend before launch, people were reporting that BSkyB had either cancelled or rescheduled its installation. Finally, the BBC reported that 17,000 customers had yet to receive the service due to failed deliveries. On 31 March 2012, Sky announced the total number of homes with Sky+HD was 4,222,000.

Question: When did BSkyB launch it's HDTV service?

Question: How many people were registered to receive the HD service prior to launch?

Question: What was the name of the set top box manufacturer that BSkyB was having issues with?

Question: What was the number of customers that the BBC  reported had yet to receive the service due to failed deliveries?

Question: What was the total number of homes Sky announced that had Sky+HD in March of 2012?


Context: BSkyB's digital service was officially launched on 1 October 1998 under the name Sky Digital, although small-scale tests were carried out before then. At this time the use of the Sky Digital brand made an important distinction between the new service and Sky's analogue services. Key selling points were the improvement in picture and sound quality, increased number of channels and an interactive service branded Open.... now called Sky Active, BSkyB competed with the ONdigital (later ITV Digital) terrestrial offering and cable services. Within 30 days, over 100,000 digiboxes had been sold, which help bolstered BSkyB's decision to give away free digiboxes and minidishes from May 1999.

Question: When was BSkyB's digital service launched?

Question: What was the name of BSkyB's digital service launched under?

Question: What did BSkyB name their interactive service?

Question: Who did BSkyB compete with initially?

Question: Within the 30 days how many digiboxes had been sold?


Context: Virgin Media (re-branded in 2007 from NTL:Telewest) started to offer a high-definition television (HDTV) capable set top box, although from 30 November 2006 until 30 July 2009 it only carried one linear HD channel, BBC HD, after the conclusion of the ITV HD trial. Virgin Media has claimed that other HD channels were "locked up" or otherwise withheld from their platform, although Virgin Media did in fact have an option to carry Channel 4 HD in the future. Nonetheless, the linear channels were not offered, Virgin Media instead concentrating on its Video On Demand service to carry a modest selection of HD content. Virgin Media has nevertheless made a number of statements over the years, suggesting that more linear HD channels are on the way.

Question: When was virgin media rebranded from NTL Telewest?

Question: what was NTL Telewest re-branded to in 2007?

Question: What did Virgin Media concentrate on instead of offering linear channels?

Question: What was the one linear HD channel Virgin Media carried from November 2006 to July 2009?

Question: what was the name of the other HD channel Virgin media could carry in the future?


Context: The centre-left Australian Labor Party (ALP), the centre-right Liberal Party of Australia, the rural-based National Party of Australia, and the environmentalist Australian Greens are Victoria's main political parties. Traditionally, Labor is strongest in Melbourne's working class western and northern suburbs, and the regional cities of Ballarat, Bendigo and Geelong. The Liberals' main support lies in Melbourne's more affluent eastern and outer suburbs, and some rural and regional centres. The Nationals are strongest in Victoria's North Western and Eastern rural regional areas. The Greens, who won their first lower house seats in 2014, are strongest in inner Melbourne.

Question: What political party is strongest in Melbourne's working class suburbs?

Question: What party is strongest in Melbourne's affluent areas?

Question: Which party is strongest in Victoria's northwestern and eastern regions?

Question: What party rules in Melbourne's inner regions?

Question: What party is favored in Bedigo and Geelong?


Context: The revocation forbade Protestant services, required education of children as Catholics, and prohibited emigration. It proved disastrous to the Huguenots and costly for France. It precipitated civil bloodshed, ruined commerce, and resulted in the illegal flight from the country of hundreds of thousands of Protestants, many of whom became intellectuals, doctors and business leaders in Britain as well as Holland, Prussia, and South Africa. Four thousand emigrated to the North American colonies, where they settled in New York and Virginia, especially. The English welcomed the French refugees, providing money from both government and private agencies to aid their relocation. Those Huguenots who stayed in France became Catholics and were called "new converts".

Question: What was required of Huguenot children after the Edict was revoked?

Question: How did the revocation restrict Huguenot travel?

Question: How many Huguenots emigrated to North America as colonists?

Question: What were Huguenots who stayed in France eventually known as?

Question: Besides Britain and North America, where else did Huguenot refugees settle?


Context: The bulk of Huguenot émigrés relocated to Protestant European nations such as England, Wales, Scotland, Denmark, Sweden, Switzerland, the Dutch Republic, the Electorate of Brandenburg and Electorate of the Palatinate in the Holy Roman Empire, the Duchy of Prussia, the Channel Islands, and Ireland. They also spread beyond Europe to the Dutch Cape Colony in South Africa, the Dutch East Indies, the Caribbean, and several of the English colonies of North America, and Quebec, where they were accepted and allowed to worship freely.

Question: What two member nations of the Holy Roman Empire received Huguenot refugees?

Question: What general religious belief did the nations that received Huguenot refugees have in common?

Question: What area in modern-day Canada received Huguenot immigrants?

Question: What area in South Africa accepted Huguenot colonists?

Question: What made emigration to these colonies attractive?


Context: Some disagree with such double or triple non-French linguistic origins, arguing that for the word to have spread into common use in France, it must have originated in the French language. The "Hugues hypothesis" argues that the name was derived by association with Hugues Capet, king of France, who reigned long before the Reformation. He was regarded by the Gallicans and Protestants as a noble man who respected people's dignity and lives. Janet Gray and other supporters of the hypothesis suggest that the name huguenote would be roughly equivalent to little Hugos, or those who want Hugo.

Question: From what French King did the Huguenot name possibly descend?

Question: What is the theory that this King's name is the origin of "Huguenot" called?

Question: Who is one prominent advocate of this theory?

Question: According to the theory, what does the name "Huguenot" mean?

Question: Other theories of the word's origin can be generally classed as what?


Context: Around 1800 Richard Trevithick and, separately, Oliver Evans in 1801 introduced engines using high-pressure steam; Trevithick obtained his high-pressure engine patent in 1802. These were much more powerful for a given cylinder size than previous engines and could be made small enough for transport applications. Thereafter, technological developments and improvements in manufacturing techniques (partly brought about by the adoption of the steam engine as a power source) resulted in the design of more efficient engines that could be smaller, faster, or more powerful, depending on the intended application.

Question: Who invented a high-pressure steam engine around 1800?

Question: Who created an engine using high pressure steam in 1801?

Question: In what year did Richard Trevithick patent his device?

Question: High pressure steam engines were small enough that they could be used in what application?

Question: What were steam engines used as a source of?


Context: Where CHP is not used, steam turbines in power stations use surface condensers as a cold sink. The condensers are cooled by water flow from oceans, rivers, lakes, and often by cooling towers which evaporate water to provide cooling energy removal. The resulting condensed hot water output from the condenser is then put back into the boiler via a pump. A dry type cooling tower is similar to an automobile radiator and is used in locations where water is costly. Evaporative (wet) cooling towers use the rejected heat to evaporate water; this water is kept separate from the condensate, which circulates in a closed system and returns to the boiler. Such towers often have visible plumes due to the evaporated water condensing into droplets carried up by the warm air. Evaporative cooling towers need less water flow than "once-through" cooling by river or lake water; a 700 megawatt coal-fired power plant may use about 3600 cubic metres of make-up water every hour for evaporative cooling, but would need about twenty times as much if cooled by river water.[citation needed]

Question: What do power station steam turbines use as a cold sink in the absence of CHP?

Question: What device is a dry cooling tower similar to?

Question: In what sort of places are dry cooling towers used?

Question: An evaporative cooling tower is also referred to as what kind of cooling tower?

Question: About how many cubic meters of make-up water is used by a 700-megawatt coal-fired power plant for evaporative cooling hourly?


Context: The weight of boilers and condensers generally makes the power-to-weight ratio of a steam plant lower than for internal combustion engines. For mobile applications steam has been largely superseded by internal combustion engines or electric motors. However, most electric power is generated using steam turbine plant, so that indirectly the world's industry is still dependent on steam power. Recent concerns about fuel sources and pollution have incited a renewed interest in steam both as a component of cogeneration processes and as a prime mover. This is becoming known as the Advanced Steam movement.[citation needed]

Question: What is the power-to-weight ratio of a steam plant compared to that of an internal combustion engine?

Question: Along with internal combustion engines, what machines have superseded steam in some areas?

Question: What plants create most electric power?

Question: What is the name of the movement that seeks renewed use of steam power in the modern era?

Question: Along with fuel sources, what concern has contributed to the development of the Advanced Steam movement?


Context: The next major step occurred when James Watt developed (1763–1775) an improved version of Newcomen's engine, with a separate condenser. Boulton and Watt's early engines used half as much coal as John Smeaton's improved version of Newcomen's. Newcomen's and Watt's early engines were "atmospheric". They were powered by air pressure pushing a piston into the partial vacuum generated by condensing steam, instead of the pressure of expanding steam. The engine cylinders had to be large because the only usable force acting on them was due to atmospheric pressure.

Question: When did Watt finish the development of his improvements to Newcomen's engine?

Question: What did Watt add to Newcomen's engine between 1763 and 1775?

Question: Compared to Smeaton's improvement on Newcomen's engine, how much coal did Watt's engine use?

Question: In addition to Watt, Boulton and Smeaton, whose engine was an atmosphere design?

Question: In an atmospheric engine, what does air pressure push against?


Context: The acme of the horizontal engine was the Corliss steam engine, patented in 1849, which was a four-valve counter flow engine with separate steam admission and exhaust valves and automatic variable steam cutoff. When Corliss was given the Rumford medal the committee said that "no one invention since Watt's time has so enhanced the efficiency of the steam engine". In addition to using 30% less steam, it provided more uniform speed due to variable steam cut off, making it well suited to manufacturing, especially cotton spinning.

Question: What was the ultimate development of the horizontal engine?

Question: In what year was the Corliss engine patented?

Question: How much less steam did the Corliss engine use compared to the Watt engine?

Question: How many valves did the Corliss engine use?

Question: What award was given to Corliss?


Context: By the late 19th century scientists realized that air could be liquefied, and its components isolated, by compressing and cooling it. Using a cascade method, Swiss chemist and physicist Raoul Pierre Pictet evaporated liquid sulfur dioxide in order to liquefy carbon dioxide, which in turn was evaporated to cool oxygen gas enough to liquefy it. He sent a telegram on December 22, 1877 to the French Academy of Sciences in Paris announcing his discovery of liquid oxygen. Just two days later, French physicist Louis Paul Cailletet announced his own method of liquefying molecular oxygen. Only a few drops of the liquid were produced in either case so no meaningful analysis could be conducted. Oxygen was liquified in stable state for the first time on March 29, 1883 by Polish scientists from Jagiellonian University, Zygmunt Wróblewski and Karol Olszewski.

Question: By what century did researchers see that they could liquefy air?

Question: By what means were scientists able to liquefy air?

Question: What scientist told the French Academy of Sciences that he had found how to liquefy oxygen?

Question: What minor amount of liquid oxygen was produced by early French experimenters?

Question: On what date was oxygen liquefied in a stable form?


Context:
Singlet oxygen is a name given to several higher-energy species of molecular O
2 in which all the electron spins are paired. It is much more reactive towards common organic molecules than is molecular oxygen per se. In nature, singlet oxygen is commonly formed from water during photosynthesis, using the energy of sunlight. It is also produced in the troposphere by the photolysis of ozone by light of short wavelength, and by the immune system as a source of active oxygen. Carotenoids in photosynthetic organisms (and possibly also in animals) play a major role in absorbing energy from singlet oxygen and converting it to the unexcited ground state before it can cause harm to tissues.

Question: What is the name for a form of oxygen in which electrons are paired?

Question: To what is singlet oxygen more reactive?

Question: In what process is singlet oxygen usually formed?

Question: By what process is singlet oxygen made in the tropophere?

Question: What objects in organisms absorb singlet oxygen to prevent harm?


Context:
In the triplet form, O
2 molecules are paramagnetic. That is, they impart magnetic character to oxygen when it is in the presence of a magnetic field, because of the spin magnetic moments of the unpaired electrons in the molecule, and the negative exchange energy between neighboring O
2 molecules. Liquid oxygen is attracted to a magnet to a sufficient extent that, in laboratory demonstrations, a bridge of liquid oxygen may be supported against its own weight between the poles of a powerful magnet.[c]

Question: What magnetic character do triplet O2 have?

Question: In experiments, a bridge of what element can be built between poles of a magnet?

Question: The spin of what can produce a magnetic effect to oxygen molecules?

Question: What kind of field is necessary to produce a magnet effect in oxygen molecules?

Question: What device is used to test the magnetic attractions involved in liquid oxygen?


Context:
Due to its electronegativity, oxygen forms chemical bonds with almost all other elements to give corresponding oxides. The surface of most metals, such as aluminium and titanium, are oxidized in the presence of air and become coated with a thin film of oxide that passivates the metal and slows further corrosion. Many oxides of the transition metals are non-stoichiometric compounds, with slightly less metal than the chemical formula would show. For example, the mineral FeO (wüstite) is written as Fe
1 − xO, where x is usually around 0.05.

Question: What characteristic of oxygen causes it to form bonds with other elements?

Question: What is usual form of oxygen bound compounds?

Question: What is the mineral wustite?

Question: What does oxygen cause to form on metals?

Question: What does the film of oxide on metals delay?


Context: Some of the income was dispensed in the form of aid to other underdeveloped nations whose economies had been caught between higher oil prices and lower prices for their own export commodities, amid shrinking Western demand. Much went for arms purchases that exacerbated political tensions, particularly in the Middle East. Saudi Arabia spent over 100 billion dollars in the ensuing decades for helping spread its fundamentalist interpretation of Islam, known as Wahhabism, throughout the world, via religious charities such al-Haramain Foundation, which often also distributed funds to violent Sunni extremist groups such as Al-Qaeda and the Taliban.

Question: How much did Saudi Arabia spend on spreading Wahhabism?

Question: Which group benefited from the funds distributed by the religious charity, al-Haramain Foundation?

Question: Some of the income went to the purchase of arms which exacerbated political tension especially in which area?

Question: What is one of the reason that underdeveloped nations received aid from the oil income?

Question: What is a fundamentalist interpretation of Islam called?


Context: The Apollo program succeeded in achieving its goal of manned lunar landing, despite the major setback of a 1967 Apollo 1 cabin fire that killed the entire crew during a prelaunch test. After the first landing, sufficient flight hardware remained for nine follow-on landings with a plan for extended lunar geological and astrophysical exploration. Budget cuts forced the cancellation of three of these. Five of the remaining six missions achieved successful landings, but the Apollo 13 landing was prevented by an oxygen tank explosion in transit to the Moon, which disabled the command spacecraft's propulsion and life support. The crew returned to Earth safely by using the Lunar Module as a "lifeboat" for these functions.

Question: In what year did the Apollo 1 cabin fire occur?

Question: What type of launch was happening during the Apollo 1 incident?

Question: What forced the cancellations of three future landings?

Question: How many of the remaining launches were successful?

Question: What happened to Apollo 13?


Context: The G mission was achieved on Apollo 11 in July 1969 by an all-Gemini veteran crew consisting of Neil Armstrong, Michael Collins and Buzz Aldrin. Armstrong and Aldrin performed the first landing at the Sea of Tranquility at 20:17:40 UTC on July 20, 1969. They spent a total of 21 hours, 36 minutes on the surface, and spent 2 hours, 31 minutes outside the spacecraft, walking on the surface, taking photographs, collecting material samples, and deploying automated scientific instruments, while continuously sending black-and-white television back to Earth. The astronauts returned safely on July 24.

Question: From what project did the Apollo 11 crew consist entirely of?

Question: In what month and year did the Apollo 11 mission occur?

Question: What did the astronauts on the moon send back to Earth live via signals?

Question: Who were the astronauts aboard the Apollo 11 mission?

Question: What day did the Apollo 11 crew return to Earth?


Context: Generally speaking, while all member states recognise that EU law takes primacy over national law where this agreed in the Treaties, they do not accept that the Court of Justice has the final say on foundational constitutional questions affecting democracy and human rights. In the United Kingdom, the basic principle is that Parliament, as the sovereign expression of democratic legitimacy, can decide whether it wishes to expressly legislate against EU law. This, however, would only happen in the case of an express wish of the people to withdraw from the EU. It was held in R (Factortame Ltd) v Secretary of State for Transport that "whatever limitation of its sovereignty Parliament accepted when it enacted the European Communities Act 1972 was entirely voluntary" and so "it has always been clear" that UK courts have a duty "to override any rule of national law found to be in conflict with any directly enforceable rule of Community law." More recently the UK Supreme Court noted that in R (HS2 Action Alliance Ltd) v Secretary of State for Transport, although the UK constitution is uncodified, there could be "fundamental principles" of common law, and Parliament "did not either contemplate or authorise the abrogation" of those principles when it enacted the European Communities Act 1972. The view of the German Constitutional Court from the Solange I and Solange II decisions is that if the EU does not comply with its basic constitutional rights and principles (particularly democracy, the rule of law and the social state principles) then it cannot override German law. However, as the nicknames of the judgments go, "so long as" the EU works towards the democratisation of its institutions, and has a framework that protects fundamental human rights, it would not review EU legislation for compatibility with German constitutional principles. Most other member states have expressed similar reservations. This suggests the EU's legitimacy rests on the ultimate authority of member states, its factual commitment to human rights, and the democratic will of the people.

Question: What do all member states agree takes precedence over national law?

Question: What issues do member states say the Court of Justice does not have the final say on?

Question: When was the European Communities Act created?

Question: What does the EU's legitimacy rest on?

Question: In what cases can the EU not override German law?


Context: EU Competition law has its origins in the European Coal and Steel Community (ECSC) agreement between France, Italy, Belgium, the Netherlands, Luxembourg and Germany in 1951 following the second World War. The agreement aimed to prevent Germany from re-establishing dominance in the production of coal and steel as members felt that its dominance had contributed to the outbreak of the war. Article 65 of the agreement banned cartels and article 66 made provisions for concentrations, or mergers, and the abuse of a dominant position by companies. This was the first time that competition law principles were included in a plurilateral regional agreement and established the trans-European model of competition law. In 1957 competition rules were included in the Treaty of Rome, also known as the EC Treaty, which established the European Economic Community (EEC). The Treaty of Rome established the enactment of competition law as one of the main aims of the EEC through the "institution of a system ensuring that competition in the common market is not distorted". The two central provisions on EU competition law on companies were established in article 85, which prohibited anti-competitive agreements, subject to some exemptions, and article 86 prohibiting the abuse of dominant position. The treaty also established principles on competition law for member states, with article 90 covering public undertakings, and article 92 making provisions on state aid. Regulations on mergers were not included as member states could not establish consensus on the issue at the time.

Question: Which countries were the European Coal and Steel Community agreement between?

Question: What year was the ECSC agreement established?

Question: What did article 65 of the ECSC ban?

Question: Which article made provisions for concentrations or mergers and the abuse of a dominant position by companies?

Question: When were competition rules included in the Treaty of Rome?


Context: As indigenous territories continue to be destroyed by deforestation and ecocide, such as in the Peruvian Amazon indigenous peoples' rainforest communities continue to disappear, while others, like the Urarina continue to struggle to fight for their cultural survival and the fate of their forested territories. Meanwhile, the relationship between non-human primates in the subsistence and symbolism of indigenous lowland South American peoples has gained increased attention, as have ethno-biology and community-based conservation efforts.

Question: What kind of territories are being destroyed by ecocide in the Amazon?

Question: What type of conservation effort is gaining attention in the Amazon?

Question: Indigenous territories are largely being destroyed in what two ways?

Question: The Peruvian Amazon indigienous people are one group struggling in the Amazon, what is another group?

Question: There is growing interest in what indigenous group in the Amazon?


Context: The Lobata have a pair of lobes, which are muscular, cuplike extensions of the body that project beyond the mouth. Their inconspicuous tentacles originate from the corners of the mouth, running in convoluted grooves and spreading out over the inner surface of the lobes (rather than trailing far behind, as in the Cydippida). Between the lobes on either side of the mouth, many species of lobates have four auricles, gelatinous projections edged with cilia that produce water currents that help direct microscopic prey toward the mouth. This combination of structures enables lobates to feed continuously on suspended planktonic prey.

Question:
What does the lobata have pair of?
What are auricles?
How many auricles do most species have?
What do the auricles do?
What do lobates feed on?


Context: Almost all ctenophores are predators – there are no vegetarians and only one genus that is partly parasitic. If food is plentiful, they can eat 10 times their own weight per day. While Beroe preys mainly on other ctenophores, other surface-water species prey on zooplankton (planktonic animals) ranging in size from the microscopic, including mollusc and fish larvae, to small adult crustaceans such as copepods, amphipods, and even krill. Members of the genus Haeckelia prey on jellyfish and incorporate their prey's nematocysts (stinging cells) into their own tentacles instead of colloblasts. Ctenophores have been compared to spiders in their wide range of techniques from capturing prey – some hang motionless in the water using their tentacles as "webs", some are ambush predators like Salticid jumping spiders, and some dangle a sticky droplet at the end of a fine thread, as bolas spiders do. This variety explains the wide range of body forms in a phylum with rather few species. The two-tentacled "cydippid" Lampea feeds exclusively on salps, close relatives of sea-squirts that form large chain-like floating colonies, and juveniles of Lampea attach themselves like parasites to salps that are too large for them to swallow. Members of the cydippid genus Pleurobrachia and the lobate Bolinopsis often reach high population densities at the same place and time because they specialize in different types of prey: Pleurobrachia's long tentacles mainly capture relatively strong swimmers such as adult copepods, while Bolinopsis generally feeds on smaller, weaker swimmers such as rotifers and mollusc and crustacean larvae.

Question: Are ctenophores predators, vegetarian or parasitic?

Question: Haeckelia prey mostly on what animal?

Question: What happens to the jellyfish nematocysts when they are eaten by the haeckelia?

Question: What does the bolinopsis generally eat?

Question: What is the name of the two-tentacled cydippid that feedsentirely on salps called?


Context: The early Cambrian sessile frond-like fossil Stromatoveris, from China's Chengjiang lagerstätte and dated to about 515 million years ago, is very similar to Vendobionta of the preceding Ediacaran period. De-Gan Shu, Simon Conway Morris et al. found on its branches what they considered rows of cilia, used for filter feeding. They suggested that Stromatoveris was an evolutionary "aunt" of ctenophores, and that ctenophores originated from sessile animals whose descendants became swimmers and changed the cilia from a feeding mechanism to a propulsion system.

Question: How old were the fossils found in China?

Question: What type of fossils were found in China?

Question: Which genus is considered the "aunt" of ctenophores?

Question: Stromatoveris is similair to which genus?

Question: Vendobionta lived during which period?


Context: In September 1958, Bank of America launched a new product called BankAmericard in Fresno. After a troubled gestation during which its creator resigned, BankAmericard went on to become the first successful credit card; that is, a financial instrument that was usable across a large number of merchants and also allowed cardholders to revolve a balance (earlier financial products could do one or the other but not both). In 1976, BankAmericard was renamed and spun off into a separate company known today as Visa Inc.

Question: What new product did Bank of America introduce in 1958?

Question: What was the name of the first successful credit card?

Question: What did the BankAmericard allow customers do to that they couldn't do with previous financial instruments?

Question: In what year did BankAmericard change its name?

Question: What present-day company did BankAmericard turn into?


Context: While many homes in the neighborhood date back to the 1930s or before, the neighborhood is also home to several public housing developments built between the 1960s and 1990s by the Fresno Housing Authority. The US Department of Housing and Urban Development has also built small subdivisions of single-family homes in the area for purchase by low-income working families. There have been numerous attempts to revitalize the neighborhood, including the construction of a modern shopping center on the corner of Fresno and B streets, an aborted attempt to build luxury homes and a golf course on the western edge of the neighborhood, and some new section 8 apartments have been built along Church Ave west of Elm St. Cargill Meat Solutions and Foster Farms both have large processing facilities in the neighborhood, and the stench from these (and other small industrial facilities) has long plagued area residents. The Fresno Chandler Executive Airport is also on the West Side. Due to its position on the edge of the city and years of neglect by developers, is not a true "inner-city" neighborhood, and there are many vacant lots, strawberry fields and vineyards throughout the neighborhood. The neighborhood has very little retail activity, aside from the area near Fresno Street and State Route 99 Freeway (Kearney Palm Shopping Center, built in the late 1990s) and small corner markets scattered throughout.

Question: When were the public housing developments built in the neighborhood?

Question: On which corner is the shopping center located?

Question: What are the two processing facilities in the neighborhood?

Question: Where is the airport located?

Question: How much retail activity does the neighborhood have?


Context: There were 158,349 households, of which 68,511 (43.3%) had children under the age of 18 living in them, 69,284 (43.8%) were opposite-sex married couples living together, 30,547 (19.3%) had a female householder with no husband present, 11,698 (7.4%) had a male householder with no wife present. There were 12,843 (8.1%) unmarried opposite-sex partnerships, and 1,388 (0.9%) same-sex married couples or partnerships. 35,064 households (22.1%) were made up of individuals and 12,344 (7.8%) had someone living alone who was 65 years of age or older. The average household size was 3.07. There were 111,529 families (70.4% of all households); the average family size was 3.62.

Question: How many households has kids under the age of 18 living in them?

Question: What was the percentage of a female householder with no husband present?

Question: How many same-sex married couples or partnerships were there?

Question: What was the average family size?

Question: What was the average household size?


Context: To avoid interference with existing VHF television stations in the San Francisco Bay Area and those planned for Chico, Sacramento, Salinas, and Stockton, the Federal Communications Commission decided that Fresno would only have UHF television stations. The very first Fresno television station to begin broadcasting was KMJ-TV, which debuted on June 1, 1953. KMJ is now known as NBC affiliate KSEE. Other Fresno stations include ABC O&O KFSN, CBS affiliate KGPE, CW affiliate KFRE, FOX affiliate KMPH, MNTV affiliate KAIL, PBS affiliate KVPT, Telemundo O&O KNSO, Univision O&O KFTV, and MundoFox and Azteca affiliate KGMC-DT.

Question: Why does Fresno only have UHF television stations?

Question: What was the very first television station to broadcast in Fresno?

Question: When did the KMJ-TV first broadcast?

Question: What is KMJ now referred to?

Question: What is the name of the CBS affiliate in Fresno?


Context: Tymnet was an international data communications network headquartered in San Jose, CA that utilized virtual call packet switched technology and used X.25, SNA/SDLC, BSC and ASCII interfaces to connect host computers (servers)at thousands of large companies, educational institutions, and government agencies. Users typically connected via dial-up connections or dedicated async connections. The business consisted of a large public network that supported dial-up users and a private network business that allowed government agencies and large companies (mostly banks and airlines) to build their own dedicated networks. The private networks were often connected via gateways to the public network to reach locations not on the private network. Tymnet was also connected to dozens of other public networks in the U.S. and internationally via X.25/X.75 gateways. (Interesting note: Tymnet was not named after Mr. Tyme. Another employee suggested the name.)

Question: What was Tymnet

Question: What did Tymnet connect

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Context: The Black Death is thought to have originated in the arid plains of Central Asia, where it then travelled along the Silk Road, reaching Crimea by 1343. From there, it was most likely carried by Oriental rat fleas living on the black rats that were regular passengers on merchant ships. Spreading throughout the Mediterranean and Europe, the Black Death is estimated to have killed 30–60% of Europe's total population. In total, the plague reduced the world population from an estimated 450 million down to 350–375 million in the 14th century. The world population as a whole did not recover to pre-plague levels until the 17th century. The plague recurred occasionally in Europe until the 19th century.

Question: Where did the black death originate?

Question: How did the black death make it to the Mediterranean and Europe?

Question: How much of the European population did the black death kill?

Question: When did the world's population finally recover from the black death?

Question: For how long did the plague stick around?


Context: The plague disease, caused by Yersinia pestis, is enzootic (commonly present) in populations of fleas carried by ground rodents, including marmots, in various areas including Central Asia, Kurdistan, Western Asia, Northern India and Uganda. Nestorian graves dating to 1338–39 near Lake Issyk Kul in Kyrgyzstan have inscriptions referring to plague and are thought by many epidemiologists to mark the outbreak of the epidemic, from which it could easily have spread to China and India. In October 2010, medical geneticists suggested that all three of the great waves of the plague originated in China. In China, the 13th century Mongol conquest caused a decline in farming and trading. However, economic recovery had been observed at the beginning of the 14th century. In the 1330s a large number of natural disasters and plagues led to widespread famine, starting in 1331, with a deadly plague arriving soon after. Epidemics that may have included plague killed an estimated 25 million Chinese and other Asians during the 15 years before it reached Constantinople in 1347.

Question: What does it mean for a disease to be enzootic?

Question: How old are the gravestones that reference the plague?

Question: Where do scientists think all of the plagues originated from?

Question: When did the Chinese famine begin?

Question: How many did this epidemic in China kill?


Context: The historian Francis Aidan Gasquet wrote about the 'Great Pestilence' in 1893 and suggested that "it would appear to be some form of the ordinary Eastern or bubonic plague". He was able to adopt the epidemiology of the bubonic plague for the Black Death for the second edition in 1908, implicating rats and fleas in the process, and his interpretation was widely accepted for other ancient and medieval epidemics, such as the Justinian plague that was prevalent in the Eastern Roman Empire from 541 to 700 CE.

Question: Who wrote about the great pestilence in 1893?

Question: What did Gasquet think the plague was?

Question: When did the second edition of Gasquet's book come out?

Question: What did Gasquet's book blame the plague on?

Question: What is another plague thought to have spread the same way?


Context: The study also found that there were two previously unknown but related clades (genetic branches) of the Y. pestis genome associated with medieval mass graves. These clades (which are thought to be extinct) were found to be ancestral to modern isolates of the modern Y. pestis strains Y. p. orientalis and Y. p. medievalis, suggesting the plague may have entered Europe in two waves. Surveys of plague pit remains in France and England indicate the first variant entered Europe through the port of Marseille around November 1347 and spread through France over the next two years, eventually reaching England in the spring of 1349, where it spread through the country in three epidemics. Surveys of plague pit remains from the Dutch town of Bergen op Zoom showed the Y. pestis genotype responsible for the pandemic that spread through the Low Countries from 1350 differed from that found in Britain and France, implying Bergen op Zoom (and possibly other parts of the southern Netherlands) was not directly infected from England or France in 1349 and suggesting a second wave of plague, different from those in Britain and France, may have been carried to the Low Countries from Norway, the Hanseatic cities or another site.

Question: What are clades?

Question: What strains of y. pestis were found in the mass graves?

Question: What do the strains of y. pestis suggest abut the plague?

Question: How and when did the first variant of y. pestis enter Europe?

Question: When did the y. pestis reach England?


Context: The principle of inclusions and components states that, with sedimentary rocks, if inclusions (or clasts) are found in a formation, then the inclusions must be older than the formation that contains them. For example, in sedimentary rocks, it is common for gravel from an older formation to be ripped up and included in a newer layer. A similar situation with igneous rocks occurs when xenoliths are found. These foreign bodies are picked up as magma or lava flows, and are incorporated, later to cool in the matrix. As a result, xenoliths are older than the rock which contains them.

Question: What foreign bodies, which are older than the rocks themselves, occur igneous rocks?

Question: Xenoliths are picked up by what and deposited into the matrix of igneous rocks?

Question: What is another word for inclusions in sedimentary rocks?

Question: What is the principle that states that with sedimentary rocks, inclusions must be older than the formation that contains them?

Question: What is something that is often torn up and included in sedimentary rock?


Context: Extension causes the rock units as a whole to become longer and thinner. This is primarily accomplished through normal faulting and through the ductile stretching and thinning. Normal faults drop rock units that are higher below those that are lower. This typically results in younger units being placed below older units. Stretching of units can result in their thinning; in fact, there is a location within the Maria Fold and Thrust Belt in which the entire sedimentary sequence of the Grand Canyon can be seen over a length of less than a meter. Rocks at the depth to be ductilely stretched are often also metamorphosed. These stretched rocks can also pinch into lenses, known as boudins, after the French word for "sausage", because of their visual similarity.

Question: This causes the rock unit as a whole to become longer and thinner.

Question: Stretched rocks that pinch into lenses are known by what word?

Question: Where can the entire sedimentary sequence of the Grand Canyon be seen in less than the length of a meter?

Question: Rocks that are a depth where they are ductilely stretched are also often what?

Question: What causes rock extension?


Context: During the English Civil War, the North declared for the King. In a bid to gain Newcastle and the Tyne, Cromwell's allies, the Scots, captured the town of Newburn. In 1644 the Scots then captured the reinforced fortification on the Lawe in South Shields following a siege. In 1644 the city was then besieged for many months and was eventually stormed ('with roaring drummes') and sacked by Cromwell's allies. The grateful King bestowed the motto "Fortiter Defendit Triumphans" ("Triumphing by a brave defence") upon the town. Charles I was imprisoned in Newcastle by the Scots in 1646–7.

Question: Who did the North declare for during the English civil war?

Question: Who was Cromwell's allies?

Question: What was roaring as Newcastle was stormed?

Question: What does Fortiter Defendit Triumphans mean?

Question: Who was imprisoned in Newcastle by the Scots in 1646 through 1647?


Context: Another green space in Newcastle is the Town Moor, lying immediately north of the city centre. It is larger than London's famous Hyde Park and Hampstead Heath put together and the freemen of the city have the right to graze cattle on it. The right incidentally extends to the pitch of St. James' Park, Newcastle United Football Club's ground, though this is not exercised, although the Freemen do collect rent for the loss of privilege. Honorary freemen include Bob Geldof, King Harald V of Norway, Bobby Robson, Alan Shearer, the late Nelson Mandela and the Royal Shakespeare Company. The Hoppings funfair, said to be the largest travelling funfair in Europe, is held here annually in June.

Question: What's the name of the green space north of the center of Newcastle?

Question: What an the freeman of Newcastle do with their cows on the Town Moor?

Question: What is said to be the largest travelling funfair in Europe?

Question: When is the funfair held in Newcastle?

Question: What honorary title does Bob Geldof hold?


Context: Other shopping destinations in Newcastle include Grainger Street and the area around Grey's Monument, the relatively modern Eldon Garden and Monument Mall complexes, the Newgate Centre, Central Arcade and the traditional Grainger Market. Outside the city centre, the largest suburban shopping areas are Gosforth and Byker. The largest Tesco store in the United Kingdom is located in Kingston Park on the edge of Newcastle. Close to Newcastle, the largest indoor shopping centre in Europe, the MetroCentre, is located in Gateshead.

Question: What type of destination is the area around Grey's Monument?

Question: Gosforth and Byker are the largest shopping areas of what type?

Question: The largest brand of what store in the UK is located in Kingston Park?

Question: What is the name of the largest indoor shopping centre in Europe?

Question: Where is the MetroCentre located?


Context: According to the same statistics, the average age of people living in Newcastle is 37.8 (the national average being 38.6). Many people in the city have Scottish or Irish ancestors. There is a strong presence of Border Reiver surnames, such as Armstrong, Charlton, Elliot, Johnstone, Kerr, Hall, Nixon, Little and Robson. There are also small but significant Chinese, Jewish and Eastern European (Polish, Czech Roma) populations. There are also estimated to be between 500 and 2,000 Bolivians in Newcastle, forming up to 1% of the population—the largest such percentage of any UK city.

Question: What is the average age of people who live in Newcastle?

Question: Scottish or Irish describe the type of what people in Newcastle have?

Question: What type of surnames is their a strong presence of?

Question: What is the smallest number of Bolivians it's estimated live in Newcastle?

Question: What percentage of Newcastle's population is it believed the Bolivians account for?


Context: There are eleven LEA-funded 11 to 18 schools and seven independent schools with sixth forms in Newcastle. There are a number of successful state schools, including Walker Technology College, Gosforth High School, Heaton Manor School, St Cuthbert's High School, St. Mary's Catholic Comprehensive School, Kenton School, George Stephenson High School, Sacred Heart and Benfield School. The largest co-ed independent school is the Royal Grammar School. The largest girls' independent school is Newcastle High School for Girls. Both schools are located on the same street in Jesmond. Newcastle School for Boys is the only independent boys' only school in the city and is situated in Gosforth. Newcastle College is the largest general further education college in the North East and is a beacon status college; there are two smaller colleges in the Newcastle area. St Cuthbert's High School and Sacred Heart are the two primary state-Catholic run high schools, and are both achieving results on par with the independent schools in Newcastle.

Question: How many LEA-funded 11 to 18 schools are there in Newcastle?

Question: How many of the schools in Newcastle are independent?

Question: What is the largest co-ed independent school in Newcastle?

Question: What is the largest general further education college in the North East?

Question: What religion is St Cuthbert's High School dominated by?


Context: The Parish Church of St Andrew is traditionally recognised as 'the oldest church in this town'. The present building was begun in the 12th Century and the last addition to it, apart from the vestries, was the main porch in 1726. It is quite possible that there was an earlier church here dating from Saxon times. This older church would have been one of several churches along the River Tyne dedicated to St Andrew, including the Priory church at Hexham. The building contains more old stonework than any other church in Newcastle. It is surrounded by the last of the ancient churchyards to retain its original character. Many key names associated with Newcastle's history worshipped and were buried here. The church tower received a battering during the Siege of Newcastle by the Scots who finally breached the Town Wall and forced surrender. Three of the cannonballs remain on site as testament to the siege.

Question: Which parish church in Newcastle is typically agreed to be the oldest one in town?

Question: What year was the latest addition to the Church of St. Andrew?

Question: What was added to the the church of St. Andrew in 1726?

Question: What surrounds the church of St. Andrew?

Question: What received a battering during the Siege of Newcastle?


Context: Prince Albert appears within the main arch above the twin entrances, Queen Victoria above the frame around the arches and entrance, sculpted by Alfred Drury. These façades surround four levels of galleries. Other areas designed by Webb include the Entrance Hall and Rotunda, the East and West Halls, the areas occupied by the shop and Asian Galleries as well as the Costume Gallery. The interior makes much use of marble in the entrance hall and flanking staircases, although the galleries as originally designed were white with restrained classical detail and mouldings, very much in contrast to the elaborate decoration of the Victorian galleries, although much of this decoration was removed in the early 20th century.

Question: Who sculpted the representations of Prince Albert and Queen Victoria found in the main entrance?

Question: How many levels of galleries do the façades surround?

Question: Who designed the Entrance Hall and Rotunda?

Question: What building material does the entrance hall and flanking staircases use predominantly?

Question: Which British monarch appears above the frame around the arches and entrance?


Context: Not only are all the major British architects of the last four hundred years represented, but many European (especially Italian) and American architects' drawings are held in the collection. The RIBA's holdings of over 330 drawings by Andrea Palladio are the largest in the world, other Europeans well represented are Jacques Gentilhatre and Antonio Visentini. British architects whose drawings, and in some cases models of their buildings, in the collection, include: Inigo Jones, Sir Christopher Wren, Sir John Vanbrugh, Nicholas Hawksmoor, William Kent, James Gibbs, Robert Adam, Sir William Chambers, James Wyatt, Henry Holland, John Nash, Sir John Soane, Sir Charles Barry, Charles Robert Cockerell, Augustus Welby Northmore Pugin, Sir George Gilbert Scott, John Loughborough Pearson, George Edmund Street, Richard Norman Shaw, Alfred Waterhouse, Sir Edwin Lutyens, Charles Rennie Mackintosh, Charles Holden, Frank Hoar, Lord Richard Rogers, Lord Norman Foster, Sir Nicholas Grimshaw, Zaha Hadid and Alick Horsnell.

Question: The RIBA's drawing collection of what Italian architect is considered the largest in the world?

Question: Which lone female architect listed above is represented in the collection?

Question: Approximately how many drawings of the Italian architect Andrea Palladio is in the RIBA collection?

Question: Which architect, famous for designing London's St. Paul Cathedral, is represented in the RIBA collection?

Question: Which architect, famous for the India Gate in New Delhi, is represented in the RIBA collection?


Context: The V&A holds over 19,000 items from the Islamic world, ranging from the early Islamic period (the 7th century) to the early 20th century. The Jameel Gallery of Islamic Art, opened in 2006, houses a representative display of 400 objects with the highlight being the Ardabil Carpet, the centrepiece of the gallery. The displays in this gallery cover objects from Spain, North Africa, the Middle East, Central Asia and Afghanistan. A masterpiece of Islamic art is a 10th-century Rock crystal ewer. Many examples of Qur'āns with exquisite calligraphy dating from various periods are on display. A 15th-century minbar from a Cairo mosque with ivory forming complex geometrical patterns inlaid in wood is one of the larger objects on display. Extensive examples of ceramics especially Iznik pottery, glasswork including 14th-century lamps from mosques and metalwork are on display. The collection of Middle Eastern and Persian rugs and carpets is amongst the finest in the world, many were part of the Salting Bequest of 1909. Examples of tile work from various buildings including a fireplace dated 1731 from Istanbul made of intricately decorated blue and white tiles and turquoise tiles from the exterior of buildings from Samarkand are also displayed.

Question: Approximately how many items from the Islamic world are held in the V&A collection?

Question: In which year did the Jameel Gallery of Islamic Art opened?

Question: What is considered the centerpiece of the Jameel Gallery of Islamic Art?

Question: Some of the objects held in the Jameel Gallery of Islamic Art come from which European country?

Question: In which year was the Salting Bequest?


Context: The Toshiba gallery of Japanese art opened in December 1986. The majority of exhibits date from 1550 to 1900, but one of the oldest pieces displayed is the 13th-century sculpture of Amida Nyorai. Examples of classic Japanese armour from the mid-19th century, steel sword blades (Katana), Inrō, lacquerware including the Mazarin Chest dated c1640 is one of the finest surviving pieces from Kyoto, porcelain including Imari, Netsuke, woodblock prints including the work of Ando Hiroshige, graphic works include printed books, as well as a few paintings, scrolls and screens, textiles and dress including kimonos are some of the objects on display. One of the finest objects displayed is Suzuki Chokichi's bronze incense burner (koro) dated 1875, standing at over 2.25 metres high and 1.25 metres in diameter it is also one of the largest examples made. The museum also holds some cloisonné pieces from the Japanese art production company, Ando Cloisonné.

Question: Which company is the gallery of Japanese art named after?

Question: In which year did the gallery of Japanese art open?

Question: The sculpture of Amida Nyorai that is included in the V&A's Japanese art collection is dated to which century?

Question: Most of the objects in the Japanese art collection is dated to which time period?

Question: Suzuki Chokichi's incense burner dated 1875 is made of what from material?


Context: The smaller galleries cover Korea, the Himalayan kingdoms and South East Asia. Korean displays include green-glazed ceramics, silk embroideries from officials' robes and gleaming boxes inlaid with mother-of-pearl made between 500 AD and 2000. Himalayan items include important early Nepalese bronze sculptures, repoussé work and embroidery. Tibetan art from the 14th to the 19th century is represented by notable 14th- and 15th-century religious images in wood and bronze, scroll paintings and ritual objects. Art from Thailand, Burma, Cambodia, Indonesia and Sri Lanka in gold, silver, bronze, stone, terracotta and ivory represents these rich and complex cultures, the displays span the 6th to 19th centuries. Refined Hindu and Buddhist sculptures reflect the influence of India; items on show include betel-nut cutters, ivory combs and bronze palanquin hooks.

Question: Tibetan art from which period is represented in the V&A collection?

Question: Which South Asian island nation is represented in the V&A collection?

Question: The influence of India can be seen in which religious art objects from Thailand, Burma and Cambodia?

Question: Some of the museum's collection of Korean boxes are inlaid with what objects?

Question: Some of the combs in the V&A collection of South East Asian art is made of what material?


Context: The costume collection is the most comprehensive in Britain, containing over 14,000 outfits plus accessories, mainly dating from 1600 to the present. Costume sketches, design notebooks, and other works on paper are typically held by the Word and Image department. Because everyday clothing from previous eras has not generally survived, the collection is dominated by fashionable clothes made for special occasions. One of the first significant gifts of costume came in 1913 when the V&A received the Talbot Hughes collection containing 1,442 costumes and items as a gift from Harrods following its display at the nearby department store.

Question: Approximately how many items are in the costume collection of the V&A?

Question: Which department houses the works on paper of the costume collection?

Question: Why is the collection dominated by fashionable clothes made for special occasions?

Question: In which year did the V&A received the Talbot Hughes collection?

Question: The Talbot Hughes collection was a gift from which company?


Context: Once Mutual's appeals against the FCC were rejected, RCA decided to sell NBC Blue in 1941, and gave the mandate to do so to Mark Woods. RCA converted the NBC Blue Network into an independent subsidiary, formally divorcing the operations of NBC Red and NBC Blue on January 8, 1942, with the Blue Network being referred to on-air as either "Blue" or "Blue Network". The newly separated NBC Red and NBC Blue divided their respective corporate assets. Between 1942 and 1943, Woods offered to sell the entire NBC Blue Network, a package that included leases on landlines, three pending television licenses (WJZ-TV in New York City, KGO-TV in San Francisco and WENR-TV in Chicago), 60 affiliates, four operations facilities (in New York City, Chicago, Los Angeles and Washington D.C.), contracts with actors, and the brand associated with the Blue Network. Investment firm Dillon, Read & Co. (which was later acquired by the Swiss Bank Corporation in 1997) offered $7.5 million to purchase the network, but the offer was rejected by Woods and RCA president David Sarnoff.

Question: To whom did RCA mandate the sale of NBC blue to in 1941?

Question: What network was converted into an independent subsidiary by RCA in 1942?

Question: What investment firm offered to buy the NBC Blue network from Mark Woods?

Question: Who was RCA president in 1942?

Question: How much money did Dillon, Read & Co offer Mark Woods for NBC Blue?


Context: At the end of 1949, movie theater operator United Paramount Theatres (UPT) was forced by the U.S. Supreme Court to become an independent entity, separating itself from Paramount Pictures. For its part, ABC was on the verge of bankruptcy, with only five owned-and-operated stations and nine full-time affiliates. Its revenues, which were related to advertising and were indexed compared to the number of listeners/viewers, failed to compensate for its heavy investments in purchasing and building stations. In 1951, a rumor even mentioned that the network would be sold to CBS. In 1951, Noble held a 58% ownership stake in ABC, giving him $5 million with which to prevent ABC from going bankrupt; as banks refused further credit, that amount was obtained through a loan from the Prudential Insurance Company of America.

Question: In 1949, UPT was forced to become an independent entity by whom?

Question: Who was UPT forced to separate themselves from in 1949?

Question: How many affiliates did ABC have in 1949?

Question: In 1951, rumors claimed that ABC might be sold to what network?

Question: Noble acquired a loan from what entity to keep ABC solvent in 1951?